UPSC Civil Services Prelims Answer key 2025

The UPSC Prelims 2025 answer key is essential for evaluating performance and planning next steps.

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UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025 GENERAL PAPER(GS) ANSWER KEY | With Detailed and Improvised

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UPSC CSE 2025 PRELIMS CSAT PAPER SET : A | Answer Key is Here

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1."Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London

(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Correct Answer: B

On 6th April, Gandhi Ji reached Dandi, picked up handful of salt and broke the salt law as a

symbol of the Indian People’s refusal to live under British-made laws and therefore under

British rule. Gandhi Ji declared :

 “The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination

of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am ought to destroy this system of

Government. … Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to

kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

Mahatma Gandhi famously said "Sedition has become the language of religion with me" — a

line often paraphrased as "Sedition has become my religion." This statement was made on

March 18, 1922, during his historic trial for sedition at the Sessions Court in Ahmedabad, in

what is officially known as the "Gandhi Sedition Trial."

2. The famous female figurine known as Dancing Girl", found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian

(b) clay

(c) bronze

(d) gold

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The “Dancing Girl” is a famous artifact from Mohenjo-daro (Indus Valley Civilization). It is a small

bronze statue of a young girl in a dancing pose, made using the lost-wax casting technique.

Source:

NCERT Class 6 – Our Pasts – I, Chapter 4

NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History – Part I, Chapter 1

3. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das 

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya Krishna Kant

(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami

(d) M. A. Jinnah

Correct Answer: B

- The Chauri Chaura incident occurred in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces (now

Uttar Pradesh), when a protest by peasants participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement

turned violent. The crowd set fire to a police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.

- Around 225 people were arrested and charged with murder and rioting.

- Of them, 172 were tried for the death of the policemen.

- The Sessions Court at Gorakhpur sentenced 170 people to death in January 1923 — an

unusually harsh verdict.

Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya — a renowned lawyer, educationist, and freedom fighter — took up

the legal defense of the accused during the appeal in the Allahabad High Court

4. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed

untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment

of Harijans" in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact Gandhi-Irwin

(b) The (Delhi Pact)

(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act. 1935

Correct Answer: A

- Mahatma Gandhi had long opposed untouchability as a social evil. However, it was after the

Poona Pact of 1932 that he decided to make the upliftment of the "Harijans" (a term he used

for the Depressed Classes/Untouchables) a central part of his political and social

programme.

- After the Poona Pact Gandhi devoted himself more fully to the cause of the Dalits,

whom he began calling “Harijans” (children of God).

- He launched the Harijan Sevak Sangh (1932) to work for their upliftment.

- Started publishing the weekly newspaper “Harijan” to campaign against

untouchability.

- He undertook nationwide tours, focusing on:

- Opening temples to untouchables

- Promoting education, sanitation, and social integration for Harijans Urging caste

Hindus to abandon discriminatory practices

5. Consider the following fruits :

I Papaya

II Pineapple

III Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and

seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: C

- All three fruits—papaya, pineapple, and guava—were introduced to India by the Portuguese

during the 16th and 17th centuries.

1. Papaya

- Origin: Native to southern Mexico and Central America.

- Introduction to India: The Portuguese introduced papaya to India in the 16th century. By the

early 17th century, papaya was being cultivated in regions like Portuguese Daman.

2. Pineapple

- Origin: Native to southern Brazil and Paraguay.

- Introduction to India: The Portuguese introduced pineapple to India around 1550, bringing it

from Brazil.

3. Guava

- Origin: Native to Mexico, Central America, and northern South America.

Introduction to India: Guava was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century

6. Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom

II. Denmark

III. New Zealand

IV. Australia

V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five

(b) Only four

(c) Only three

(d) Only two

Correct Answer: c

Explanation:

Country Standard Time Zones (Approx. Count incl. Territories) More than Four Time Zones?

United Kingdom Many (>4) Yes

Denmark 5 (>4) Yes

New Zealand 3 (?4) No

Australia 7 (>4) Yes

Brazil 4 (?4) No

7. Consider the following statements :

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people

are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: A

Anadyr, in the Russian Far East (Chukotka), and Nome, in western Alaska, are geographically close —

separated by only a few hundred kilometers across the Bering Strait. But due to the International Date

Line running between them, they are nearly a full day apart in time. Hence, it would be different days

when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities. Statement I is correct

Anadyr, Russia is 21 (20 hours during day light saving time) hours ahead of Nome, Alaska.

Hence, when it is Monday in Anadyr, it will be Sunday in Nome. Statement II is incorrect.

8. Who among the following was the founder of the "Self-Respect Movement"?

(a) "Periyar" E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Correct Answer: A

The Self-Respect Movement was a radical social reform movement launched in Tamil Nadu (then

Madras Presidency) in the 1920s. Its primary goal was to achieve:

- Annihilation of caste

- Equality for backward castes and women

- Rejection of Brahminical domination

- Promotion of rationalism, self-respect, and social justice

Founder: Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

- Founded in 1925 by Periyar after he left the Indian National Congress, disappointed with its

failure to address caste-based discrimination and Brahminical dominance.

- Periyar emphasized atheism, anti-Brahminism, and Dravidian identity.

- He rejected caste and religious orthodoxy and promoted rationalism and equality through

this movement.

9. Consider the following pairs:

Country Resource-rich in

I. Botswana : Diamond

II. Chile : Lithium

III. Indonesia : Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Botswana is renowned for its rich deposits of diamonds

In addition to copper, Chile is also a major world supplier of lithium, molybdenum, gold, and silver.

Chile currently holds the largest proven reserves of lithium under exploitation.

Indonesia is rich in mineral resources, especially coal and nickel.

10. Consider the following pairs :

Region Country

I. Mallorca : Italy

II. Normandy : Spain

III. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Mallorca, or Majorca, is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, and

the seventh largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.

Normandy is a region of northern France.

Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, after Sicily, and one of the twenty

regions of Italy

Hence, all the rows are incorrectly matched.

11. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ?80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ?60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ?10,000 crores and interest payments of ?6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is 20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is 10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement I is correct as Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditures – revenue receipts. Hence RD =

80000 cr – 60000 cr = 20000cr

Statement II is also correct as Fiscal Deficit = Borrowing = Rs.10000Cr

Statement III is also correct as Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment = Rs.10000 Cr –

Rs.6000 cr = Rs.4000cr

12. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport

Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

(b) India to Central Asia via China

(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Correct Answer: a

Explanation: 

Option (a) is correct: India, Iran, and Russia

• The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal transportation network that aims to enhance connectivity between India, Iran, and Russia.

• The corridor is designed to facilitate the movement of goods between South Asia and Northern Europe, passing through the Central Asian and Caucasus regions.

• India, Iran, and Russia are the primary founding members of the INSTC, and they play a crucial role in its development and implementation.

• The corridor is expected to reduce transportation costs and time, providing a more efficient trade route compared to traditional maritime routes. The route primarily involves moving freight from India, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia via ship, rail, and road. The objective of the corridor is to increase trade connectivity between major cities such as Mumbai, Moscow, Tehran, Baku, Bandar Abbas, Astrakhan, Bandar Anzali etc.

13. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of

America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for

ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: D

- The United States is the world"s largest producer of ethanol. In 2023, the U.S. produced

approximately 15.6 billion gallons of ethanol, which was over half of global production and

nearly double Brazil"s output. Brazil is the second-largest ethanol producer, followed by India.

United States: The U.S. produced 53% of global ethanol in 2023, and the largest producer.

Brazil: The second-largest producer, with 8.8 billion gallons of ethanol produced in 2024.

India: The third-largest producer and consumer of ethanol globally.

- In Brazil, ethanol is primarily produced from sugarcane. While Brazil also uses corn for ethanol

production, sugarcane is the dominant feedstock.

- In the US, corn is the primary feedstock for ethanol production, accounting for 98% of the

country"s ethanol fuel in 2023. This process typically involves dry milling corn to extract starch,

which is then fermented into ethanol. While other feedstocks like cellulosic biomass are used,

corn dominates the ethanol fuel market in the US.

14. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb

temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the

implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat

through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: c

- The World Bank is concerned about the increasing threat of heat stress in India, particularly

as it relates to wet-bulb temperatures. A report by the World Bank in 2023 noted that India

could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures exceed the survivability

threshold of 35°C. This is a significant concern because prolonged exposure to

temperatures above this threshold can be lethal.

- Wet-bulb temperature:

- This measurement combines both heat and humidity, and it"s a key indicator of heat stress.

When it"s hot and humid, sweating becomes less effective, and the body struggles to

regulate its temperature.

- Danger threshold:

- A wet-bulb temperature of 35°C or higher is considered dangerous, as prolonged exposure

can lead to heatstroke, organ failure, and even death.

- India"s vulnerability:

- The World Bank has identified India as being particularly vulnerable to this threat due to its

climate and increasing heat waves.

- Impact on livelihoods:

- The report also highlights the impact on vulnerable populations who work outdoors in

these conditions, highlighting the need for heat action plans that prioritize these

individuals.

- Need for action:

- The World Bank is calling for greater investment in climate adaptation measures in India,

including developing heat action plans, strengthening disaster preparedness, and

implementing urban planning guidelines that prioritize green spaces and shade.

15. A country"s fiscal deficit stands at ?50,000 crores. It is receiving ?10,000 crores through nondebt

creating capital receipts. The country"s interest liabilities are ?1,500 crores. What is the gross

primary deficit?

(a) ?48,500 crores

(b) ?51,500 crores

(c) ?58,500 crores

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Explanation :

Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – interest payment = 50000 – 1500 = Rs.48500Cr.

16. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance

Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ?4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for

incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ?45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out

agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(c) I, III and IV

(d) II, III and IV

Correct Answer: C

Explanation :

Statement I is correct as 15th FC has recommended grants to improve educational outcomes in

states.

Statement II is incorrect as Net devolution to states is 41% not 45%.

Statement III is correct as performance based incentive is recommended to carry out agriculture

reforms.

Statement IV is correct as tax effort criteria has been reintroduced. The weight is 2.5%.

17. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and

Development (IBRD) :

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: c / d

18. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle

payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) I and III

(d) III only

Correct Answer: A

Statement I is correct as RTGS is settled instantaneously while NEFT is settled in specific lots so it

takes time.

Statement II is incorrect as customers are not charged for inward transactions, neither in NEFT nor in

RTGS.

Statement III is also not correct as NEFT and RTGS both are available 24*7. As per RBI guidelines,

Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) is available 24x7 with effect from Dec 14, 2020.

19. Consider the following countries :

I. United Arab Emirates

II. France

III. Germany

IV. Singapore

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant

payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All the five

Correct Answer: B

According to NPCI website UPI is accepted in Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Sri Lanka, Singapore, UAE,

Nepal.

20. Consider the following statements about "PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana":

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation,

maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling,

under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(c) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: D

All statements are correct.

21. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and

computer monitors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A

- rare earth elements (REEs) are crucial in the manufacturing of flat television screens and

computer monitors, particularly in producing the phosphors that emit light. Specifically,

elements like europium, yttrium, and terbium are used to create the red, green, and blue

colors needed for displays.

- Phosphors:

- REEs are used in phosphors, which are materials that emit light when they are excited by

another form of energy (like electricity).

- Red, Green, and Blue:

- Different REEs produce different colors of light. For example, europium is used in red and

blue phosphors, while yttrium and terbium are used in green phosphors.

- LCD and LED Displays:

- REEs are used in both LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diode) screens,

which are common in televisions, computer monitors, and other electronic devices.

- Other REEs in Electronics:

- While europium, yttrium, and terbium are particularly important for display technology,

other REEs like lanthanum, neodymium, and praseodymium are also used in other

electronic components, such as hard drives, batteries, and magnets.

22. Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a "future ready" railway

system by 2028.

II. "Kavach" is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. Kavach" system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: A

- 1. The Plan is to create a "future ready" Railway system by 2030. The NRP is aimed to formulate

strategies based on both operational capacities and commercial policy initiatives to increase

modal share of the Railways in freight to 45%.

- 2. No, Kavach is not developed in collaboration with Germany. It is an indigenously developed

Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation

(RDSO) in India. It is a state-of-the-art system designed to prevent train collisions and ensure

safe operation.

- 3. The Kavach train collision avoidance system, a system to prevent train collisions, uses RFID

tags installed on the track in station sections. These tags provide the locomotive with

information about the track and surrounding conditions, aiding in determining the train"s

direction and location. This information, along with data from the wayside KAVACH unit, helps

the system to prevent collisions and ensure train safety.

23. Consider the following space missions :

I. Axiom-4

II. SpaDeX

III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro- gravity research?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: B

- Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) is a private spaceflight to the ISS operated by Axiom Space (US-based

space-infrastructure development company), using the SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft.

The SpaceX Crew Dragon is a reusable spacecraft that carries astronauts to and from the ISS.

It is the fourth flight in collaboration with the National Aeronautics and Space Administration

(NASA), following Axiom Missions 1, 2, and 3.

Mission Objectives:

Commercial Space Initiatives: Axiom-4 focuses on enabling commercial activities like space

tourism in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

It aims to demonstrate the feasibility of commercial space stations as platforms for business and

research.

International Collaboration: The mission features a diverse multinational crew, emphasising

global cooperation in space exploration.

It aims to strengthen international partnerships and promote joint efforts in advancing space

science.

Research and Development: The mission supports scientific experiments and technological

advancements in microgravity.

Research areas include materials science, biology, and Earth observation, offering potential

breakthroughs.

2. The primary objective of the SpaDeX mission is to develop and demonstrate the technology

needed for rendezvous, docking, and undocking of two small spacecraft (SDX01, which is the

Chaser, and SDX02, the Target, nominally) in a low-Earth circular orbit. Secondary objectives

include:

Demonstration of the transfer of electric power between the docked spacecraft, which is

essential for future applications such as in-space robotics,Composite spacecraft control, and

Payload operations after undocking

3. Yes, the Gaganyaan mission includes microgravity research as a key element. The Indian Space

Research Organisation (ISRO) is conducting experiments in microgravity during the mission, with

some of these experiments focused on studying biological changes and physical phenomena in

the absence of normal gravity.

Here"s a more detailed breakdown:

Microgravity Research Focus:

The Gaganyaan mission aims to conduct microgravity research, which involves studying the

effects of reduced gravity on various aspects of life and physical phenomena.

Biological Experiments:

ISRO is conducting biological experiments during the mission, such as studies on changes in

kidney stone formation in fruit flies, the SIRT1 gene, microbial contamination, and cocrystallisation in microgravity conditions.

Physical Science Experiments:

The mission also includes physical science experiments related to microgravity.

Importance of Microgravity Research:

Microgravity research is crucial for understanding the impacts of space travel on the human

body and for developing technologies needed for long-duration space missions, according to

India Today.

Gaganyaan as a Platform:

The Gaganyaan mission provides a platform for ISRO to conduct microgravity research and gain

experience in human spaceflight operations.

Preparatory Missions:

Two unmanned missions precede the manned Gaganyaan mission, allowing ISRO to test

technologies and systems, including microgravity experiments, before sending astronauts to

space.

24. With reference to India"s defence,consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type Description

I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft

II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft

III. C-17 Globe- : Military transport aircraft

master III

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: B

1.The Dornier 228 (also known as HAL Do-228) is a versatile, twin-engine utility aircraft developed by

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in India. It"s a multi-role aircraft with Short Take-Off and

Landing (STOL) capabilities, used for various purposes including military transport, maritime

surveillance, and commuter operations.

2. The Ilyushin Il-76 (NATO reporting name: "Candid") is a Soviet-designed, four-engine, strategic

transport aircraft. It has been used extensively for military and civilian purposes, including strategic

airlift, heavy cargo transport, and even emergency response. India has a significant number of Il-76

aircraft in its fleet, known as the "Gajraj" (King Elephant), and has been exploring ways to extend

their lifespan and potentially modernize them.

3. The C-17 Globemaster III is a heavy-lift strategic transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force

(IAF) for rapid airlift capabilities, including moving troops and supplies. The C-17 is a key asset in

India"s military capabilities, especially for deployments in challenging terrains and remote areas.

Role:The C-17 is a heavy-lift transport aircraft with a long range, enabling the rapid deployment of

troops, equipment, and supplies.

25. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate

(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Correct Answer: A

the use of silver iodide (AgI) and potassium iodide (KI) in artificial rainfall, or cloud seeding, is

intended to reduce air pollution by washing away particulate matter and other pollutants from the

atmosphere. By introducing these chemicals into clouds, they act as nuclei for water droplet

formation, leading to increased precipitation and a temporary improvement in air quality.

Cloud Seeding:

Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that aims to enhance precipitation by dispersing

substances into clouds to stimulate rainfall.

Silver Iodide and Potassium Iodide:

These chemicals are used as ice nuclei in cloud seeding, meaning they serve as surfaces for water

molecules to freeze onto, initiating the formation of ice crystals and eventually rain or snow.

26. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: A

Statement I: The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. :

CORRECT

- The Supreme Court of India has ruled that while the President"s pardoning power is

discretionary, it is not immune from judicial review.

-Key Judgments:

1. Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980)

The Court held that the President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, and

judicial review is permissible if the power is exercised arbitrarily, mala fide, or in absolute

disregard of constitutionalism.

2. Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989)

Confirmed that while the President’s decision cannot be challenged on merits, it can be

reviewed on limited grounds such as:

- Arbitrary decision

- Extraneous considerations

- Non-application of mind

- Violation of constitutional values

Statement II: The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. :

INCORRECT

- The President is constitutionally bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers under

Article 74(1) of the Constitution.

This was reaffirmed in the Maru Ram case, where the Supreme Court ruled that the pardoning

power is not to be exercised independently by the President.

27. Consider the following statements :

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until

immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People

on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of

the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that

no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days" notice has been given of the intention

to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: C

- Statement I: CORRECT. This is explicitly stated in Article 94(b) of the Constitution of India.

Article 94 – “The Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of

the People. Provided that the Speaker shall not vacate his office merely because the House of

the People has been dissolved; he shall continue until immediately before the first meeting of

the new House.”

- Statement II: INCORRECT. The Constitution of India does NOT mandate the Speaker to resign

from his/her political party.

Statement III: CORRECT. This is as per Article 94(c) and Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business

in Lok Sabha. The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority (i.e., a

majority of all the then members), and 14 days’ notice is mandatory before such a resolution is

moved

28. Consider the following statements :

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to

disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President"s decision in accordance with the opinion

of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word "political party" in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: D

- Member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution

(which deals with disqualification on the grounds of defection) are decided by the Speaker of

the Lok Sabha. The President"s role, in consultation with the Election Commission, pertains to

disqualifications under Article 102(1) (for reasons other than defection). Moreover, the

decision of the Speaker under the 10th Schedule is subject to judicial review, as held by the

Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), and thus not absolutely "final" in the sense

implied.

- Statement II: Incorrect. The term "political party" is indeed mentioned in the Constitution of

India, particularly in the Tenth Schedule. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, which inserted

the Tenth Schedule, explicitly uses the term "political party" in the context of defining

defection and the conditions for disqualification of members of Parliament and State

Legislatures. For instance, paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule refers to a member who

"has voluntarily given up his membership of such political party."

- Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.

- The correct answer is (d) Neither I nor II.

29. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions

in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their

territories.

Statement II : In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the

relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

? State Governments in India do have the power to make rules for granting concessions

for the extraction of minor minerals within their territories. This power is granted to

them by Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.

? The Central Government in India has the authority to declare specific minerals as "minor

minerals" through a notification in the Official Gazette, as defined in the Mines and

Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. Specifically, Section 3(e) of the

MMDR Act defines minor minerals, including any other mineral declared by the Central

Government.

30. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change

and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union

(b) The World Bank

(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (A)

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) has been enacted by the European Union (EU). This law aims to

address climate change, biodiversity loss, and environmental degradation. The NRL sets targets for

restoring degraded ecosystems, including the restoration of at least 20% of the EU"s land and sea by

2030, with a goal to restore all ecosystems in need by 2050

31. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: C

Statement I: Correct. An Ordinance is promulgated by the President or the Governor when the

Parliament or State Legislature is not in session. Under Article 123 (President) and Article 213

(Governor), Ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act passed by the Legislature. This

means an Ordinance can amend or repeal existing laws, including Central Acts.

Statement II: Incorrect. Ordinances cannot violate or abridge Fundamental Rights. Even though

Ordinances have the force of law, they must conform to the Constitution, including Fundamental

Rights. If an Ordinance violates Fundamental Rights, it can be struck down by the judiciary as

unconstitutional.

Statement III: Correct. Ordinances can be given retrospective effect. They can be made effective

from a date prior to their promulgation, as per the discretion of the President or Governor.

32. Consider the following pairs :

State Description

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

II. Nagaland : The State came into exis-tence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment

Act

III. Tripura : Initially a Part "C" State, it became a centrally administered territory with

thereorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: C

Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh — The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

Correct

- Capital: Itanagar

The city is named after Ita Fort, a 14th–15th century fort built by the Ahom rulers. "Ita"

means brick in the local dialect.

- National Parks:

Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks:

1. Namdapha National Park

2. Mouling National Park

So, this pair is correctly matched.

Pair II: Nagaland — The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment:

Correct

- Nagaland became the 16th state of India on 1 December 1963.

- Its creation was formalized by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, and the State

of Nagaland Act, 1962.

This pair is also correctly matched.

Pair III: Tripura — Initially a Part "C" State, it became a centrally administered territory with the

reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State: Correct

- Tripura was a Part "C" State after its merger with India in 1949.

- It became a Union Territory after the States Reorganization Act, 1956.

- It attained full statehood in 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

This pair is also correctly matched.

33. With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (a)

- Inter-State Councils are established under article 263 of Indian Constitution

- The Zonal Councils are the Statutory bodies. Established under the States Reorganization Act

of 1956.

- The National Security Council (NSC) in India is established by executive order and is

responsible for advising the Prime Minister’s Office on issues of national security and

strategic interest.

34. Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts

in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for

his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: A

Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a

State acts in his/her own discretion.

Correct

- Yes, the Constitution explicitly provides discretionary powers to the Governor in certain

situations.

- Article 163(1): The Governor shall act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers

except in so far as he is required to exercise his functions in his discretion.

Examples of Discretionary Powers:

1. Reserving a bill for President’s consideration — Article 200

2. Sending a report to the President for President’s Rule — Article 356

3. Appointment of Chief Minister in case of no clear majority

4. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers if they lose majority

So, this statement is constitutionally valid.

Statement II: The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature

for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Incorrect

- Only the Governor has the power to reserve a state bill for the President"s consideration

under Article 200.

- The President cannot suo motu reserve or take up a state bill unless it is first reserved and

forwarded by the Governor.

Article 200: When a bill passed by the Legislature of a State is presented to the Governor, he may…

reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President.

Hence, the President acts only upon a bill reserved by the Governor, not independently.

35. Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Stated under

Constitution of India

I. Separation of Judiciary from the :The Directive Principles of the State Policy

Executive in the public services

of the State

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich :The Funda-mental Duties

heritage of our composite culture

III. Prohibition of employment of children :The Funda-mental Rights

below the age of 14 years in factories

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer: C

- I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State - The Directive

Principles of the State Policy. This provision is stated under Article 50 of the Directive

Principles of State Policy. Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

- II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture – The Fundamental

Duties. This is stated under Article 51A(f) which lists the Fundamental Duties. Thus, this pair

is correctly matched.

• - III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories – The Fundamental

Rights. This provision is stated under Article 24, which is a Fundamental Right (Right against

Exploitation). Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

36. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a

State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

1. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total

administration

II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain

circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d)

- While the State Government retains some administrative power in Scheduled Areas, the

Fifth Schedule allows for the imposition of special laws and regulations concerning the

administration of Scheduled Tribes and areas. The local body may also play a more

significant role in governance. However, the State Government does not lose its executive

power entirely.

- No provision regarding the Union Government taking over the total administration of such

areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor is mentioned in

Constitution.

37. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Organization Union Ministry

I. The National : Ministry of

Commerce and

Industry

Automotive Board

II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy

Industries

III. The National : Ministry of Micro,

Small and Medium

Enterprises

Centre for Trade

Information

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (D)

- The National Automotive Board: This board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Therefore, the first pair is incorrectly matched.

- The Coir Board: The Coir Board is an autonomous body under the administrative control of

the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). Therefore, the second pair is

incorrectly matched.

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): NCTI was set up by the Ministry of Commerce and

Industry. Therefore, the third pair is incorrectly matched.

38. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor"s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of

the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before

presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a)

- Amendment by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent:

1. Election of the President and its manner.

2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.

3. Supreme Court and high courts.

4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.

5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.

6. Representation of states in Parliament.

7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself)

8. Goods and Services Tax Council

39. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the

powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her

term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of

anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (D)

Statement 1: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and

performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

- This statement is correct. Article 361(1) of the Constitution of India provides immunity to the

Governor from being answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the

powers and duties of their office.

Statement 2: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during

his/her term of office.

- This statement is correct. Article 361(2) of the Constitution states that no criminal

proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the

Governor of a State, during their term of office.

Statement 3: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect

of anything said within the House.

- This statement is correct. Article 194 of the Constitution grants certain privileges to the

members of the State Legislature, including freedom of speech within the legislature. They

are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by

them in the legislature or any committee thereof.

40. Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory

Board in our country?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Correct Answer: B

Functions of PNGRB:

- PNGRB regulates:

- Refining, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum products.

- Natural gas and city/local gas distribution networks.

- Pipelines for petroleum and natural gas transport

- Production of crude oil – Not regulated by PNGRB; this is overseen by the Ministry of

Petroleum & Natural Gas, not PNGRB.

- Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum – Yes, regulated by PNGRB.

- Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Yes, regulated by PNGRB.

- Production of natural gas – Not regulated by PNGRB; it"s under the purview of upstream

authorities like the DGH (Directorate General of Hydrocarbons).

41. Consider the following statements:

1. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain

the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of

Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of

net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the

intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d)

- 73rd CAA 1992 – Compulsory Provision – Establishment of panchayat at the village,

intermediate and district levels.

- 73rd CAA 1992 – Compulsory Provision – 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting

elections to panchayats.

- The governor of the state shall, after every five years, constitute a finance commission to

review the financial position of the panchayats.

42. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of "tourism" is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) I only

Answer: (d)

43. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of "Gandhi Peace

Prize"?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

(a) II and IV only

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I and III only

Answer: (C)

The Jury for Gandhi Peace Prize is chaired by Hon"ble Prime Minister, Sh Narendra Modi ,and

comprises of two ex-officio members, namely the Chief Justice of India and Leader of the single

largest Opposition Party in Lok Sabha.

44. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide

necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III only

(c) I only

(d) I and II only

Answer: (D)

1.GAGAN"s primary purpose is to enhance the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals by providing

additional corrections from ground stations, thereby improving navigation precision for aircraft.

2.Improved accuracy and integrity through GAGAN allows for more efficient and effective air traffic

management, enabling smoother flight paths and better coordination.

3.While GAGAN was initially developed primarily for aviation, its technology can be applied to other

modes of transportation as well, such as maritime navigation and land vehicle positioning.

45. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in

February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held

in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable

AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

correct answer (a)

Statement I is correct. The AI Action Summit, held at the Grand Palais in Paris on February 10–11,

2025, was co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra

Modi. This summit built upon the advancements made during the Bletchley Park Summit in 2023

and the Seoul Summit in 2024.

Statement II is incorrect. While the summit resulted in a declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI,

the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign this declaration. Their refusal was based on

concerns regarding national security and the adequacy of global AI governance frameworks.

46. Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Defence Awareness and Planetary : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (d)

1.The United Nations has declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. This

initiative aims to highlight the crucial role women play in agrifood systems and to address the

challenges they face, while promoting gender equality and empowerment. The UN General

Assembly approved the declaration, following a resolution proposed by the United States and

supported by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).

2.The United Nations General Assembly declared 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and

Resilient Tourism. This initiative aims to promote actions at all levels, including international

cooperation, to support sustainable and resilient tourism as a means of accelerating sustainable

development.

3.The United Nations designated 2021 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This year is

about promoting peace and trust among nations and individuals globally. The UN General Assembly

also designated the UN General Assembly also designated 2025 as the International Year of Peace

and Trust.

4.The United Nations designated 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary

Defence. This year is being highlighted to raise global awareness about asteroids and near-Earth

objects (NEOs), particularly in light of the 99942 Apophis asteroid"s close approach to Earth in 2029.

The initiative aims to foster international collaboration and education on mitigating potential

asteroid impact hazards.

47. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS :

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held

under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global

Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III

(d) I only

Answer: (A)

answer will be A, statement 3 incorrect

The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global

Development and Security.”

48. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants

posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the

Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent

or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the

date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of

India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a)

- Lokpal’s jurisdiction also includes any person who is or has been in charge (director/

manager/ secretary) of anybody/ society set up by central act or any other body financed/

controlled by central government and any other person involved in act of abetting, bribe

giving or bribe taking.

- Chairperson of the Lokpal should be either the former Chief Justice of India or the former

Judge of Supreme Court or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and outstanding

ability, having special knowledge and expertise of minimum 25 years in the matters relating

to anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance including insurance and

banking, law and management.

- No age restriction is mentioned

- Jurisdiction of the Lokpal included the Prime Minister except on allegations of corruption

relating to international relations, security, the public order, atomic energy and space.

49. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men

category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in

women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (A)

1.2025 Kho Kho World Cup. The 2025 Kho Kho World Cup was the first edition of the Kho Kho World

Cup. It was held at the Indira Gandhi Arena in New Delhi, India from 13 to 19 January 2025. The

tournament was organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India and the International Kho Kho

Federation.

2.The Indian men"s Kho Kho team won the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup by defeating Nepal with a

score of 54-36 in the final. The Indian women"s team also won the tournament, defeating Nepal in

their final match.

3.The Indian women"s team won the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup 2025, defeating Nepal with a

score of 78-40 in the final match. This victory secured them the title of world champions in the

women"s category.

50. Consider the following statements :

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world"Sm

youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record, of becoming world"s youngest

ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (B)

51. With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds

II. Hedge Funds

III. Stocks

IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (b)

Hedge Funds and Venture capital funds are treated as Alternative Investment Fund.

52. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

III. Pension fund management

IV. Lending to private companies

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, III, IV and V

(d) I, II and V

Answer: (d)

Income sources for RBI are:

- Bond buying and selling

- Forex buying and selling

- Seigniorage income from printing of notes

- Lending to banks(Not private companies)

53. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information :

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one 

 (b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (B)

Statement 1 incorrect , therefore only 2 pairs correctly matched

54. Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business

Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely nonfinancial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b)

Statement I is incorrect as SEBI mandates companies to publish BRSR. BRSR 2023 guidelines requires

the top 1,000 listed companies in India to respond to 140 questions, divided into 98 essential

indicators (mandatory) and 42 leadership indicators (voluntary).

55. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool

rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II : In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions

of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct Statement II is not correct but

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

Explanation : Statement II is correct.

Statement I is incorrect as Agriculture income tax is part of state list and some states have

taxation law related to agriculture. Also as far as Income Tax Act 1961 is concerned Section

2(1A) which defines agriculture income is silent on income from allied activities but few

supreme court judgements does not include allied activities income in agriculture hence

they are taxable according to it.

56. Consider the following statements :

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)

Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite

license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (C)

statement 2 incorrrect

57. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are

considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a

company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Bondholders are at lesser risk than share holders as they are lenders as stock holders or

share holders are owners. Also bond holders will get priority at the time of repayment than

stockholders.

58. Consider the following statements :

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus

exhibiting a great boom.

II. India"s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong"s at some

point of time.

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading

or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a)

Statement III is incorrect as SEBI regularly warns option traders of risk associated with option

trading.

59. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II : Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III : Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a)

60. Consider the following statements :

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a)

Statement III is incorrect as Interest received is revenue receipt for government.

61. Consider the following countries :

I. Austria

II. Bulgaria

III. Croatia

IV. Serbia

V. Sweden

VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

(a) Only three

(b) Only four

(c) Only five

(d) All the six

Answer (B)

Only Four Austria and Serbia not members

62. Consider the following countries :

I. Bolivia

III. Colombia

V. Paraguay

II. Brazil

IV. Ecuador

VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) Only five

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Andes Mountains, the world"s longest mountain range, extend through seven South

American countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. The Andes

stretch for a total length of 7,000 km (4,350 miles).

63. Consider the following water bodies :

I. Lake Tanganyika

II. Lake Tonlé Sap

III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (d)

• - Option 1 is incorrect. Lake Tanganyika is located in central Africa. It is one of the deepest and oldest freshwater lakes in the world. Geographically, it lies entirely south of the Equator.
•  
• - Option 2 is incorrect. Lake Tonle Sap is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Cambodia. It is located in the central plains of Cambodia and lies at a latitude of approximately 13° north of the Equator.
•  
• - Option 3 is incorrect. Patos Lagoon, known locally as Lagoa dos Patos, is a large coastal lagoon in the southern part of Brazil. It is one of the largest lagoons in South America. It lies around 30° south of the Equator.
•  

Source: Orient BlackSwan School Atlas

64. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in

India.

Which of the statements given atbove are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) Ii and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (D)

Statement I: India"s dominant position in turmeric production and exports is supported by data

indicating that it produces over 75% of the world"s turmeric and holds a significant share of the global

export market.

Statement II: The existence of diverse turmeric varieties within India is confirmed by the National

Turmeric Board and other sources.

Statement III: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are recognized as key turmericproducing states in India.

65. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay

side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six

different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(c) I, II and III

(d) II and III only

Answer: (C)

Explanation: All statements are correct.

Jig Saw Fit: The ancient rock belts found along the coast of Brazil match those found in Western

Africa, suggesting that the continents were once joined.

Placer deposits/ Evidence from Gold Deposits:The presence of rich placer deposits of gold along the

Ghana coast, despite the absence of source rocks in the region, is a strong piece of evidence for

continental drift. The gold-bearing veins are located in the Brazil Plateau.

Jig Saw Fit: The Gondwana system of sediments in India has counterparts in six other landmasses of

the Southern Hemisphere. These sedimentary sequences are collectively part of what is known as the

Gondwana Supergroup, named after the ancient supercontinent Gondwanaland (or Gondwana),

which existed from the Late Precambrian to the Jurassic.

Here are the six landmasses (or continents/regions) where Gondwana-type sedimentary sequences

are found:

- South America (notably in Brazil and Argentina)

- Africa (especially in South Africa and parts of North Africa)

- Antarctica

- Australia

- Madagascar

- Sri Lanka

66. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical than in and

temperate equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: areas Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (C)

Subtropical and Temperate Regions: These regions are characterized by dry winds and arid

conditions. The dry air makes it difficult for dust particles to become airborne and stay suspended in

the atmosphere for long periods. Additionally, the strong winds in these areas contribute to the

dispersal of dust, further reducing the overall concentration.

Equatorial and Polar Regions: Equatorial regions are typically characterized by high humidity and

rainfall, while polar regions have very cold temperatures. Both of these conditions tend to favor the

precipitation of dust particles, reducing their concentration in the atmosphere.

Hence, 1st statement is correct.

The statement "Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds" is false. Dry winds are more

commonly associated with subtropical and temperate regions, particularly those located in arid and

semi-arid areas like deserts.

67. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while

crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the

Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement II is correct explanation of statement I

Statement I: In the winter months (like January) in the Northern Hemisphere, landmasses cool down

faster than oceans. This means the temperatures over landmasses are generally lower than over the

oceans at the same latitude. As a result, isotherms (lines connecting points of equal temperature) tend

to bend southward over landmasses (following the cooler temperatures) and northward over oceans

(following the warmer temperatures).

Statement II: Oceans, being large bodies of water, have a higher heat capacity than land. They can

absorb and store more heat energy and cool down much more slowly. This means that in January

(Northern Hemisphere winter), the air over oceans will be warmer than the air over the landmasses

68. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock

whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III : Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the

above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor State- ment III is correct

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Statement I: True – Chalk is indeed very permeable because it is porous, allowing water

to pass through easily. Clay, on the other hand, is considered impermeable or has very low

permeability because it is made of very fine particles and holds water tightly, preventing its easy

movement.

Statement II: True – Chalk is porous, meaning it has tiny holes that can store and absorb water.

Statement III: False – Clay is actually porous, but not permeable. It has many tiny pores, but because

the pores are so small and the particles are tightly packed, water cannot easily pass through. So while

it can hold water, it doesn’t let it flow through easily.

69. Consider the following statements :

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the

Earth"s surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet"s average temperature.

III. Atmosphere"s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(c) I, II and III

(d) II and III only

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Statement I is correct as Without the atmosphere, Earth"s average surface temperature

would be significantly colder, far below the freezing point of water. The atmosphere acts like a blanket,

trapping heat and moderating temperatures.

Statement II is correct as this phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, involves greenhouse

gases in the atmosphere absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation, effectively trapping heat and

keeping the planet warmer than it would otherwise be.

Statement III is correct as Gases like carbon dioxide, water vapor, and methane are particularly

adept at absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation, a form of thermal energy. This process helps

to warm the Earth"s surface by trapping heat in the lower atmosphere.

70. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals

are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific

and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c)

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is being implemented for development and conservation of

indigenous bovine breeds since December 2014. The scheme is important in enhancing milk

production and productivity of bovines to meet growing demand of milk and making dairying more

remunerative to the rural farmers of the country.

71. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy :

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of

human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (C)

Statement 1: He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the

east.

-This statement is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply learned in Sanskrit, Persian, and

Arabic, and had a profound understanding of Hindu, Islamic, and Sufi philosophies. He often

drew upon these traditions in his arguments for social and religious reform.

Statement 2: He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the

principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

-This statement is also correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a strong advocate for modern education,

rational thinking, and scientific inquiry. He vehemently opposed social injustices like Sati and

championed the cause of women"s rights and equality.

72. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme :

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

II. Observance of strict non-violence

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (C)

Non-Cooperation Programme launched by Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth: This was indeed a key aspect of the NonCooperation Programme. Lawyers were asked to suspend their practice, and people were

urged to boycott foreign cloth and promote Khadi.

2. Observance of strict non-violence: Non-violence was the cornerstone of the entire NonCooperation Movement. Gandhi insisted on strict adherence to non-violent means.

3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public: This statement is the opposite

of what was advocated. The Non-Cooperation Programme called for the surrender of titles

and honorary offices.

4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes: Encouraging the establishment of local

dispute resolution mechanisms like Panchayats was part of the constructive aspects of the

Non-Cooperation Programme, aiming to reduce reliance on British legal systems.

73. he irrigation device called "Araghatta" was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The ‘Araghatta’ was an ancient Indian irrigation device. It worked as a water-lifting mechanism using

a wheel with attached pots, turned usually by animal power.

Source:

NCERT Class 6 – The Earth: Our Habitat

General references in Indian agricultural history texts

74. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles "Mattavilasa",

"Vichitrachitta" "Gunabhara?

(a) Mahendravarman I

(b) Simhavishnu

(c) Narasimhavarman I

(d) Simhavarman

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation : He was a Pallava king known for his literary and artistic contributions. The titles "Mattavilasa", "Vichitrachitta", and "Gunabhara" are explicitly associated with him, highlighting his diverse talents as a playwright, architect, and virtuous ruler.
 

Source:

NCERT Class 11 – An Introduction to Indian Art

Tamil Nadu Board Class 11 History

75. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Chandragupta II

(c) Kumaragupta I

(d) Skandagupta

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) around 405-411 CE to study

Buddhism. He visited places like Kapilavastu, Kushinagara, and Pataliputra.

Source:

NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History – Part I, Chapter 2

Historical accounts of Fa-Hien’s travels

76. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom

of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the

neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

(c) Rajendra I (Chola)

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Rajendra Chola I led a naval expedition in 1025 CE against the Srivijaya empire, located in presentday Indonesia, to assert Chola dominance over maritime trade routes.

Source:

NCERT Class 11 – Themes in World History

South Indian Inscriptions – Epigraphia Indica

77. With reference to ancient India

(600-322 BC), consider the following

pairs :

Territorial region River flowing

in the region

I. Asmaka :Godavari

II. Kamboja :Vipas

III. Avanti :Mahanadi

IV. Kosala :Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Correct Answer: (b)

Source:

NCERT Class 6 & 12 – Ancient India

Map-based questions on Mahajanapadas (600 BCE)

78. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu

Digambar Paluskar in

(a) Delhi

(b) Gwalior

(c) Ujjain

(d) Lahore

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in 1901 at Lahore,

but later branches (and recognition) were associated with Gwalior as a cultural hub. However, some

sources mention Lahore as the first location. So Gwalior became prominent soon after.

Source:

Gandharva Mahavidyalaya official website

NCERT Music Books

79. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the "Pradeshika", "Rajuka" and "Yukta" were important

officers at the

(a) village-level administration

(b) district-level administration

(c) provincial administration

(d) level of the central administration

Correct Answer: (b)

80. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement :

I. The Congress declared the attainment of "Swaraj" by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its

objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non- payment of taxes for the

next stage only if "Swaraj" did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (C)

Statement 1: The congress declared the attainment of swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means to

be its objective.

- This statement is correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement, under Mahatma Gandhi"s

leadership, aimed for Swaraj (self-rule). The Congress adopted a resolution declaring this

objective, emphasizing legitimate and peaceful means.

Statement 2: It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes

for the next stage only if swaraj did not come within a year and the government resorted to

repression.

- This statement is also correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement was indeed planned in

stages. The initial stage involved boycotts and surrendering titles. If the government did not

respond and Swaraj was not achieved within a year, the plan included escalating to civil

disobedience and non-payment of taxes

81. Consider the following types of vehicles :

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (C)

Alternative powertrain vehicles refer to vehicles that use a power source other than the traditional

internal combustion engine. All three options listed - Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs), Hydrogen

fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs), and Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles - utilize non-traditional powertrains.

BEVs:These vehicles solely rely on electricity from a battery pack for propulsion.

FCEVs:These vehicles generate electricity through a fuel cell, using hydrogen as fuel.

Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles:These combine a fuel cell with an electric battery system, allowing

them to operate on either power source depending on the situation.

82. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following

statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the

statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (d)

Statement I is incorrect:

Not all UAVs can do vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs typically require runways for

takeoff and landing.

Statement II is incorrect:

Not all UAVs can do automated hovering. While many multi-rotor UAVs can hover,

fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover in the traditional sense.

Statement III is incorrect:

While batteries are a common power source for UAVs, other power sources like

solar panels, fuel cells, or even external power sources are also used.

83. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements :

I. Cobalt

II. Graphite

III. Lithium

IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (C)

In EV batteries, the cathode, also known as the positive electrode, is not composed of cobalt,

graphite, lithium, and nickel, but rather a combination of lithium, nickel, manganese, and cobalt

(NMC). Graphite is typically the material used for the anode, the negative electrode. The electrolyte,

which facilitates the flow of lithium ions, is a lithium salt solution.

Cathode:

The cathode is the positive electrode in a battery where lithium ions are released during charge and

received during discharge. NMC cathode materials are commonly used in EV batteries, offering a

good balance of energy density, safety, and cycle life.

Anode:

The anode is the negative electrode in a battery where lithium ions are stored during charge and

released during discharge. Graphite is a common material for anodes due to its high electrical

conductivity, low cost, and stable structure.

84. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts

II. Eyeglass lenses

III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (C)

1.Yes, cigarette butts contain plastic. Specifically, the filters in most cigarettes are made of cellulose

acetate, a plastic material. This plastic is a significant contributor to plastic pollution, especially when

cigarette butts are discarded as litter.

Cellulose Acetate:Cigarette filters are made from cellulose acetate, a manufactured plastic.

Plastic Pollution:Cigarette butts are a major source of plastic waste and microplastic pollution due to

their high volume and frequent discarding as litter.

2.Yes, many eyeglass lenses are indeed made from plastic. CR-39, a type of plastic polymer, is the

most commonly used plastic lens material. Other types of plastic lenses used include polycarbonate

and Trivex.

CR-39:This is a lightweight and durable plastic that"s been widely used in eyewear for a long time.

Polycarbonate:These lenses are known for their impact resistance and are often recommended for

children, those with active lifestyles, and for safety eyewear.

Trivex:This type of lens offers good optical quality and impact resistance, making them a good option

for various needs.

3.Yes, car tires contain plastic. Specifically, they use synthetic rubber, which is a plastic polymer,

along with natural rubber, metal, and other materials. As tires wear, they release tiny particles of

these synthetic plastic polymers, contributing to the microplastic pollution problem.

Synthetic Rubber:A significant portion of a tire"s composition is synthetic rubber, which is a type of

plastic polymer.

Other Materials:Tires also include natural rubber, metal (like steel cords), and various other

compounds.

Microplastics:As tires wear down from road friction and braking, they shed tiny particles of the

synthetic rubber, which are considered microplastics.

85. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol

II. Nitroglycerine

III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (B)

Coal gasification technology is primarily used in the production of urea and methanol, with potential

for ethanol and ammonia production as well. Nitroglycerine is not typically produced using coal

gasification technology.

Urea:

Coal gasification produces syngas (a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide), which can be used

to produce ammonia. Ammonia, along with carbon dioxide, is then reacted to form urea, a widely

used fertilizer.

Ethanol:

Coal gasification can be used to produce syngas, which can then be further processed into ethanol.

Nitroglycerine:

While coal gasification can produce hydrogen, which is a component of some chemical processes, it

is not directly used in the production of nitroglycerine. Nitroglycerine is typically produced using a

different chemical process involving the reaction of glycerol with nitric acid.

86. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX

and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro- fluorocarbon refrigerants

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: (B)

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 (also known as RDX) are all high-energy explosives. They are commonly

used in military weapons due to their high energy output and stability.

87. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web

Services (AWS). 

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (C)

1.Yes, the Majorana 1 chip is a quantum computing chip developed by Microsoft, and it is expected

to significantly advance the field of quantum computing by enabling more stable and reliable qubit

operations.

2.The Majorana 1 chip was developed by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services (AWS).

3.Deep learning is a specific type of machine learning that utilizes artificial neural networks to

process complex data. It is a subset of machine learning.

88. With reference to monoclonal antibodies,

often mentioned in news, consider the

following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (D)

1.They are man-made proteins.

Monoclonal antibodies are indeed engineered in laboratories to mimic the action of naturally

occurring antibodies.

2. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

This is the core mechanism of action of monoclonal antibodies. They are designed to bind to specific

target molecules (antigens), triggering the body"s immune response to eliminate the target.

3.. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Monoclonal antibodies can be used to neutralize viruses and are being explored for use in treating

viral infections like Nipah virus, among others.

89. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (D)

Statement I is false:

Viruses are incredibly abundant in ocean waters. In fact, the majority of viruses in the ocean are

bacteriophages, which infect bacteria.

Statement II is false:

Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. This demonstrates that viruses can infect

bacteria.

Statement III is false:

Viruses often manipulate host cell machinery to replicate themselves. Changing cellular

transcriptional activity is a key mechanism for viruses to control the host cell and produce more viral

particles.

90. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent

streams and to remediate contaminants various industries.

Statement II: from Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for

adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high

carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a)

1.This statement is accurate. Activated carbon is widely used in various industries to remove

pollutants from wastewater and remediate contaminated sites.

2. This statement is also accurate. Activated carbon"s large surface area and high porosity make it an

effective adsorbent for heavy metals and other pollutants.

3.This statement is also true. Activated carbon can be effectively synthesized from various waste

materials, including agricultural waste, sludge, and other sources, making it a sustainable and costeffective option.

91. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for

more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III : Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement

manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (B)

Statement II (Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement) is correct.

Cement manufacturing involves a mixture of limestone, clay, and other materials, with silica being a

key component in the clay.

Statement III (Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing)

is also correct.

Limestone (calcium carbonate, CaCO3) is heated in a kiln during clinker production, and this process

releases carbon dioxide and forms lime (CaO).

Statement I (Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more

than 5% of global carbon emissions) is also correct.

Cement production, especially the clinker production process, is a major source of CO2 emissions,

contributing significantly to global greenhouse gas emissions.

How they relate:

Both statements explain why the cement industry has such high CO2 emissions, but they do so from

different perspectives:

Statement II highlights that the materials used in cement (silica and limestone) are a source of CO2

emission when processed.

Statement III specifically points out that the calcination of limestone during clinker production is a

major contributor to these emissions.

Since both statements are true and provide different facets of the CO2 emission issue in cement

production, the answer is (b).

92. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from

signing the "Declara- tion on Climate and Health".

Statement II : The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed,

it becomes manda- tory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III : If India"s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may

be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c)

Statement I:

India did indeed refrain from signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.

Statement II:

The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding declaration, not a legally enforceable

agreement.

Statement III:

While decarbonizing the health sector can have various impacts, the notion that it would necessarily

compromise the resilience of India"s healthcare system is an oversimplification. Decarbonization can

also bring benefits like lower air pollution and improved infrastructure, which can indirectly improve

health.

93. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth"s rotation and axis.

Statement II : Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth"s outermost

atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III : As the Earth"s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (B)

Statement I:

Scientific studies do indeed suggest that the Earth"s rotation and axis are not completely fixed and

can experience slight shifts over time. These shifts are often referred to as nutation and precession.

Statement II:

Solar flares and coronal mass ejections are powerful events on the Sun that can impact the Earth"s

atmosphere. These events release tremendous amounts of energy and charged particles. While

these events are relevant to space weather and can cause disruptions on Earth, they are not directly

related to changes in Earth"s rotation or axis.

Statement III:

As polar ice melts, the mass distribution on Earth changes. The water from melting ice will move

towards the equator, potentially leading to subtle changes in the Earth"s rotational dynamics. This

movement of water can cause slight changes to the planet"s moment of inertia, which is one factor

that can influence the Earth"s rotation and axis.

94. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreementm on climate change is frequently discussed in global

discussionsm on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon

markets.

Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote intercountry non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct inrespect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a)

95. Which one of the following launched the "Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the

Pacific"?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Invest- ment Bank (AIIB)

(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)

(d) The International Bank for Recon- struction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (A)

1.Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific" was launched by the Asian Development

Bank (ADB).

Why other options are incorrect:

2.The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB):

While the AIIB focuses on infrastructure development, there"s no indication in the provided

information that it launched the NSFH.

3. The New Development Bank (NDB):

The NDB is another development bank, but its website doesn"t mention involvement in the NSFH.

4.The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

Also known as the World Bank, the IBRD doesn"t seem to be associated with the NSFH based on the

available information.

96. With reference to "Direct Air Capture", an emerging technology, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for nplastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic lowcarbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) III only

(c) I, II and III

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (C)

Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that captures carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere.

This captured CO2 can be used for several purposes:

Carbon sequestration:

The captured CO2 can be permanently stored underground, which is a key method for mitigating

climate change. This is referred to as carbon sequestration.

Plastic production and food processing:

Captured CO2 can be used as a feedstock for the production of various materials, including plastics.

It can also be utilized in food processing as a carbonating agent or preservative.

Synthetic low-carbon fuel:

In aviation, DAC-derived CO2 can be combined with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuels.

This offers a potential pathway to decarbonize the aviation industry.

97. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following

statements :

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(c) II only

(d) II and III

Answer: (D)

Statement II is correct:The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula) is endemic to specific forested

regions in India, particularly the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Statement III is correct:This species is known to live in trees within its habitat, making it an arboreal

tarantula.

Statement I is incorrect: Peacock tarantulas are not crustaceans; they are spiders. They are

carnivorous, feeding primarily on insects.

98. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO?) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO?/ capita.

II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III, Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) II only

(c) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (C)

Statement I:

While India"s per capita CO2 emissions are lower than many developed nations, they are not "less

than 0.5 t CO?/capita.

Statement II:

India is indeed the second-largest emitter of CO2 from fuel combustion in the Asia-Pacific region,

after China. IEA – International Energy Agency provides data confirming this ranking.

Statement III:

Electricity and heat producers are a significant source of CO2 emissions in India. PIB notes that the

energy sector is a large contributor, and electricity and heat generation are key components of that

sector.

99. Consider the following pairs :

Plant Description

i. Cassava : Woody shrub

ii. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber

IV. Mint : Annual shrub

V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All the five

Answer: (b)

Let"s analyze each pair:

I. Cassava : Woody shrub — Correct Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a perennial woody shrub

native to South America. It is cultivated for its edible starchy tuberous root.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem — Correct Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous

plant. What appears to be a stem is actually a pseudostem formed by the rolled bases of the

leaves.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber — Correct Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fastgrowing, soft-stemmed, perennial vine (climber) with succulent, herbaceous stems.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub — Incorrect Mint (Mentha spp.) is not a shrub. It is a perennial herb,

not an annual shrub. Shrubs are woody, but mint is a soft-stemmed herb.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub — Incorrect Papaya (Carica papaya) is technically a large

herbaceous plant, not a woody shrub. Its stem is soft and hollow, not woody.

100. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements :

i. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

ii. Marine phytoplankton and photo- synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world"s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric

air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II only

(c) I and III

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (B)

Statement I is incorrect:

Rain forests produce a significant amount of oxygen, but oceans, particularly through phytoplankton,

produce roughly half of the world"s oxygen.