UPSC Civil Services Prelims Answer key 2024

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2024: Your Guide to Evaluating Performance & Next Steps

The dust has settled on the UPSC Prelims 2024, and now it"s time to turn our attention to the all-important answer key. Whether you"re eager to estimate your score or analyze your performance for future attempts, this guide is here to help you navigate the process.

Why the Answer Key Matters:

Performance Evaluation: 

The most obvious reason is to gauge how well you did. Compare your answers to the official key and calculate your estimated score. This helps you understand if you"re likely to clear the cutoff and proceed to the Mains stage.

Learning Tool: 

Even if you"re confident about your performance, the answer key is a valuable resource. Analyze the questions you got wrong to identify your weak areas and tailor your study plan for the Mains exam or future attempts.

Transparency & Accountability: 

The release of the official answer key ensures transparency in the examination process. It allows candidates to verify the fairness of the evaluation and challenge any discrepancies they may find.

Where to Find the Answer Key:

Official Website: 

• The UPSC releases the official answer key on its website (upsc.gov.in) usually after the final results are declared.
•  

DICS Website: 

DICS releases answer key immediately after the exam for students to evaluate their score and decide future course of action. These can be useful for initial assessment.

Using the Answer Key:

Download & Compare: 

Download the official answer key (in PDF format) and compare it to your responses.

Marking Scheme: 

Refer to the official marking scheme to understand how marks are awarded and deducted for correct, incorrect, and unanswered questions.

Calculate Score: 

Based on your answers and the marking scheme, calculate your estimated score. Be mindful of negative marking.

Analyze Performance: 

Identify the topics where you scored well and those where you need improvement. This will be crucial for your Mains preparation.

What"s Next?

Mains Preparation: 

If your estimated score is promising, shift your focus to preparing for the Mains exam.

Review & Learn: 

Regardless of your score, thoroughly review the answer key and learn from your mistakes. This will help you in future attempts.

Key Takeaways:

The UPSC Prelims Answer Key is a crucial tool for self-assessment and learning.

Always refer to the official key for the most accurate evaluation.

Use the answer key to identify your strengths and weaknesses and tailor your preparation accordingly.

Don"t be discouraged by mistakes; learn from them and move forward with renewed determination.

Let us look at the answer key of UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 for GS paper I and CSAT in detail:

Download GS Paper I - https://drive.google.com/file/d/1GuLQd61CtTSBHD8GxZ5OK0yIvwKlVFBq/view?usp=drive_link

Download CSAT Answer key - https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KLwRMvVmd0GqRELK8VhD5Xkr8ZccJaYa/view?usp=sharing

Answer Key of GS -  Paper I Set C

Q1. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II

There have been military takeovers/coups détat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-Il does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- Sahel Countries: Burkina Faso, Cameroon, Chad, The Gambia, Guinea
Mauritania, Mali, Niger, Nigeria and Senegal.
Five military coups succeeded in five countries, in Mali, Burkina Faso, Guinea,
Niger, and Gabon, while three other nations—Tunisia, Chad, and Sudan—had
constitutional coups.

(2) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II:

In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II as correct

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-US lawmaker and apple growers celebrate export of apples to India
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/small-biz/trade/exports/insights/us-lawmaker-and
-apple-growers-celebrate-export-of-apples-to-india/articleshow/107869390.cms?from=
mdr
In India, the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, prohibits import, manufacture, use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s approval. So far, the country has allowed cultivation and import of only one GMO — cotton, a non-food crop.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/known-unknowns-india-s-apex-food-regulator-has-no-data-on-presence-of-gmos-in-fresh-produce-imported-over-past-5-years-92757

3. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

4. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:-

5. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:- Prorogation of house by president does require advice of ccouncil of ministers.

6. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II

The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-1 Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:-C

EXPLANATION:- The European Parliament has approved the Net-Zero Industry Act to enhance net-zero
technology production within the European Union. The Act targets Europe to produce
40% of its net-zero technology needs by 2030 and capture 15% of the global market
for these technologies.
EU presents its plan to achieve carbon neutrality. Here"s what you need to know · The
27-member bloc has vowed to become carbon neutral by 2050.
https://www.cnbc.com/2021/07/14/whats-the-eu-plan-to-achieve-carbon-neutrality.html

7. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II:

Venezuela has the world"s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(e) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:-  D

EXPLANATION:- Recovery is very slow and cannot be considered as rapid reccovery.

8. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1.2 and 3

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

9. With reference to the "Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan", consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector healthcare providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:-

(10) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

2 Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1,3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION: The age limit is 18 to 40 years

11. Consider the following statements regarding "Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam":

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:- The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. 

12. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023" are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1.3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Exercise was done with Sri Lanka and not Bangladesh

13. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a)  government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(B) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

ANS:- C

14. Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- B

(15.) With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A15. B

Budget is laid before parliament on behalf of President of India. 

Article 113 says that “No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.”

16. Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

17 Consider the following pairs :

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:- No country rescinded its membership of NATO

18. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I:

Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II:

Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-1 Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- The Suez Canal, the SUMED pipeline, and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait are strategic routes for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe and North America.
The Sumed Pipeline (also known as the Suez-Mediterranean Pipeline) is an oil pipeline in Egypt, running from the Ain Sokhna terminal in the Gulf of Suez, the northernmost terminus of the Red Sea, to offshore Sidi Kerir port, Alexandria in the Mediterranean Sea. It provides an alternative to the
Suez Canal for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf region to the Mediterranean.

19. Consider the following statements :

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- The sea is known for its strong winds and unpredictable local currents. The rainfall over the Red Sea and its coasts is extremely low, averaging 60 mm (2.36 in) per year. The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation and low precipitation; no significant rivers or streams drain into the sea. 

20. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(p) Extraction of metals from ores

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Specifically, coal-fired power plants are the major contributors to SO2 emissions. This is due to the high sulfur content of coal, which is released into the atmosphere as sulfur dioxide when burned.

21. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

22 The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1 Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

23 Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

A23. B

Explanation - 

•    The Akhil Bharatiya Jana Sangh was an Indian nationalist political party. This party was established on 21 October 1951 in Delhi, that existed from 1951 to 1977. Its three founding members were Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Balraj Madhok and Deendayal Upadhyaya. Jan Sangh was the political arm of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), a Hindu nationalist volunteer organisation. In 1977, it merged with several other left, centre and right parties opposed to the Indian National Congress and formed the Janata Party.
•    The Socialist Party was founded not long after India"s independence when Jayprakash Narayan, Rambriksh Benipuri, Basawon Singh (Sinha), Acharya Narendra Dev led the CSP out of Congress.
•    The Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. It was formed after Jagjivan Ram, Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna, and Nandini Satpathy left the Indian National Congress of Indira Gandhi and denounced her rule during the Indian Emergency. 
•    The Swatantra Party was an Indian classical liberal political party that existed from 1959 to 1974. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in reaction to what he felt was the Jawaharlal Nehru-dominated Indian National Congress"s increasingly socialist and statist outlook.

24. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

25. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? 

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Inter-State quarantine is a subject under the Union List. Union

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

26. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21 

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-  In India, the right to privacy is considered an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. This was affirmed by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs. Union of India (2017).

27 What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

ANS:-  D

EXPLANATION:- https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=198899

The three Chiefs will continue to advise RM on matters exclusively concerning their respective Services. CDS will not exercise any military command, including over the three Service Chiefs, so as to be able to provide impartial advice to the political leadership.

28. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad

ANS:-  C

EXPLANATION:-

29. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(c) China and India

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- World"s largest land border is shared by Canada and the USA. The border between Canada and the USA is the world"s longest continuous border. The total length of the Canada-USA border is 8,893 Km. Kazakhstan-Russia border is the second-longest land border in the world.

30. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

31.Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- 

32 With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- Under the Government of India Act of 1935, defense and foreign affairs were kept under the direct control of the Governor-General of India, who acted on behalf of the British Crown.

This meant that the Indian legislature had no control over these crucial matters, and the Governor-General could exercise his discretion in making decisions related to defense and foreign policy. This provision was a significant limitation on India"s autonomy and was seen as a way for the British to maintain their control over the country.

33. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa? 

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(c) Madhyama-vyayoga

(d) Mahabhashya

A33. C

Explanation - 
•    Madhyamavyayoga Is a Sanskrit play attributed to Bh?sa, a famous Sanskrit poet. There is no consensus regarding when the play was written, and it has been dated variously from 475 BCE to the 11th century CE.
•    Madhyama Vyayoga focuses on the name confusion between the priest Keshav Das"s middle son and the middle Pandava prince Bhima. Also, the reunion of Bhima and Ghatotkacha as father and son take place. While the characters in this tale are taken from the Mahabharata, this particular incidence is solely a product of Bhasa.

34. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

(d) Lalitavistara

A34. C

Explanation -

The Sarv?stiv?da Vinaya is a Buddhist vinaya tradition that was the most common in China in its early history. The complete Sarv?stiv?da Vinaya is included in the Chinese Buddhist canon. The Sarv?stiv?da school of Buddhism originated in the 2nd to 1st centuries BCE, when the Sarv?stiv?dins split from the Sthavirav?da school at a council in P??aliputra.

35. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan

2. Rani-ki-Vav

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

4. Mahabodhi Bodhgaya Temple Complex at

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

A35. B

•    In September 2023, 12th-century Hoysala Temples of Karnataka were included in the list by UNESCO.
•    In September 2023, Santiniketan, West Bengal, was declared a world heritage site by UNESCO.
•    Rani KI Vav was added in the list in 2014 whereas Bodhi Tree was added in 2002.
 

36 As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

37. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- For the sixth consecutive year, South Korea has recorded the world"s lowest fertility rate. Births fall in Italy for 15th year running to record low https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/births-fall-italy-15th-year-running-record-lo w-2024-03-29/

Why is Japan grappling with record-low birth rates? Here’s what the govt said
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/why-is-japan-grappli ng-with-record-low-birth-rates-heres-what-the-govt-said/articleshow/108116336.c ms?from=mdr

38. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

39 Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 only

ANS:- 

EXPLANATION:-

40. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

41. Consider the following statements

Statement-1:

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

The US government debt is not backed by physical assets like gold or silver. Instead, it is backed by the "full faith and credit" of the U.S. government, which means its ability to raise tax revenues and print money.

This backing is considered very strong, as the U.S. government has a long history of repaying its debts and has never defaulted. This is why U.S. Treasury securities are considered one of the safest investments in the world.

42 Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I:

Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II:

The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does explain Statement-I not

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

Syndicated loan means that multiple lenders are coming together to loan money to a large borrower. It can be in multiple forms such as line of credit or term loan. Hence statement I is correct but II is incorrect.

43. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee: 

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.

2. It appears as a liability on the RBI"s balance sheet.

3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.

4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 4

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

As per RBI, Digital rupee is a legal tender and sovereign money. It is presented as a liability on RBI balance sheet. Hence 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as no money can remain insulated from inflation. Statement 4 is correct as it can easily be converted into bank money and cash.

44. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? 

1. Nayaputta

2. Shakyamuni

3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

A44. B

Explanation - 

Some Buddhists meditate on (or contemplate) the Buddha as having ten characteristics. These characteristics are frequently mentioned in the P?li Canon as well as in other early Buddhist sources as well as in Mahayana texts, and are chanted daily in many Buddhist monasteries. The ten epithets are: 
1.    Thus gone, thus come (Skt: tath?gata)
2.    Worthy one (Skt: arhat)
3.    Perfectly self-enlightened (Skt: samyak-sa?buddha)
4.    Perfected in knowledge and conduct (Skt: vijya-carana-sampanno )
5.    Well gone (Skt: sugato)
6.    Knower of the world (Skt: lokavidu)
7.    Unsurpassed leader of persons to be tamed (Skt: anuttaro-puri?a-damma-s?rathi)
8.    Teacher of the gods and humans (Skt: ?aththa deva-manu?s??a?)
9.    The Enlightened One (Skt: buddha)
10.    The Blessed One or fortunate one (Skt: bhagavat) 
The tenth epithet is sometimes listed as "The World Honored Enlightened One" (Skt. Buddha-Lokanatha) or "The Blessed Enlightened One" (Skt. Buddha-Bhagavan).
Paul Williams writes that the Buddha in Mah?y?na is "a spiritual king, relating to and caring for the world". This view entails a kind of docetism regarding the "historical" Buddha, Shakyamuni.

45. Consider the following information

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?

(a) 4 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

A45. B

Explanation -

•    Chandraketugarh, located in the Ganges Delta, is actually consists of a cluster of villages in the 24 Parganas district of West Bengal. This civilization can perhaps be identified with the Gangaridai of Graeco-Roman accounts. In early historic times, Chandraketugarh was connected to the Ganga by the Bidyadhari River and must have been an important centre of trade and possibly also a political centre.
•    Inamgaon is a post-Harappan agrarian village and archaeological site located in Maharashtra, western India. Situated along the right bank of the Ghod River, it is considered to be the "regional centre" of the Bhima Valley. Inamgaon is one of the most intensively and extensively excavated and well reconstructed Chalcolithic sites of the Deccan plateau.
•    Mangadu, in Kerala is a newly discovered prehistoric site where megaliths are found in large numbers. The date of the Mangadu megaliths is approximately from 1000 B.C. to 100 B.C. The urn-burials at Mangadu reveal the evidence of post-cremation fragmentary burials. The megalithic monuments at Mangadu consisted of 28 hard compact and unhewn laterite blocks within an area of 5 cents of land.
•    Salihundam, is a village and panchayat in Gara Mandal of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh. It is a historically important Buddhist monument of ancient Kalinga and a major tourist attraction. There are a number of Buddhist stupas and a huge monastic complex on a hillock amidst scenic surroundings. The site was first discovered by Gidugu Venkata Rama Murthy in 1919.

46. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya 

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(c) Muhammad Shah III

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

A46. A

Explanation -

In 1510, Krishnadevaraya, the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, signed a treaty with the Portuguese that allowed them to build a fort in Bhatkal. The treaty also permitted the Portuguese to trade in Goa, and in return, they agreed to supply the king with high-quality war horses.

47. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A47. B

• In Ryotwari settlement, farmers had to pay the fixed revenue even in case of famines or any other natural calamities. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

In Zamindari system, zamindars had to pay the revenue on or before the fixed date or else their zamindari will be confiscated and can be transferred to other zamindar or the land can be put to auction.

48. Consider the following statements :

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.

2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A48.  B

Explanation -

• The Upanishads are a collection of sacred Hindu texts that include parables and stories that convey profound teachings. Some examples are, Parables of two sitting birds, Chandogya Upnishad.
• Yes, some Upanishads were composed earlier than some Puranas:
• Upanishads: Some scholars believe that the Upanishads were composed between 800 and 500 BCE, while others date the Yoga Upanishads to 100 BCE–300 CE and the Sannyasa Upanishads to the last centuries of the 1st millennium BCE–300 CE.

Puranas: The first versions of the Puranas are thought to have been composed between the 3rd and 10th century CE.

49. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.

2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

50. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(c) Garba dance

(d) Kumbh mela

A50. C

Explanation -

The latest cultural heritage included in the list is Garba, a tradition dance form from Gujarat.
 

51. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(b) the birth rate minus death rate.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

Total fertility Rate is defined as number of live births a woman will have at the end of her child bearing age.

52. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India cannot directly access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The LAF is a monetary policy tool used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the banking system. It consists of repo and reverse repo operations, which allow banks to borrow from or lend to the RBI at the repo rate and reverse repo rate, respectively.

However, there are indirect ways in which NBFCs can benefit from the LAF. For example, if the RBI injects liquidity into the banking system through repo operations, this can lead to lower interest rates in the market, which can benefit NBFCs by making it cheaper for them to borrow funds. Hence 1 is incorrect.

In India FII can access G-Sec market, hence 2 is correct.

In India stock exchanges can offer separate trading platform for debt. So 3 is correct.

53. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ?

1. Insurance Companies

2. Pension Funds

3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

In India Insurance companies, pension funds and retail investors all can trade in corporate bonds and government securities.

54. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

2. Motor vehicles

3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1.2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

Financial instruments are those whose holding authorizes the holder to receive money in future. Hence Exchange Traded Funds and currency swaps are financial instruments. Motor vehicle is part of physical asset. Hence answer is D. 

55. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

ANS:- C. Only Three

EXPLANATION:-

Correct pairs are 

Storage of Agriculture Produce – Secondary

Dairy Farm – Primary

Weaving cloth – Secondary

Incorrect pair

Mineral Exploration - Tertiary.  It should be Primary.

56. Consider the following materials: 

1. Agricultural residues

2. Corn grain

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1,3 and 4 only

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:- A Menu of Sustainable Feedstocks for Producing SAF An estimated 1 billion dry tons of biomass can be collected sustainably each year in the United States, enough to produce 50–60 billion gallons of low-carbon biofuels.
These resources include:
Corn grain
Oil seeds
Algae
Other fats, oils, and greases
Agricultural residues
Forestry residues
Wood mill waste
Municipal solid waste streams
Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge)
Dedicated energy crops.
This vast resource contains enough feedstock to meet the projected fuel demand of the U.S. aviation industry, additional volumes of drop-in low carbon fuels for use in other modes of transportation, and produce high-value bioproducts and renewable chemicals.
https://www.energy.gov/eere/bioenergy/sustainable-aviation-fuels

57. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:-

Fixed Capital - Fixed capital refers to the long-term assets of a company that are not consumed or converted into cash within a single accounting period. These assets are typically tangible and relatively illiquid, meaning they cannot be easily converted into cash. Examples of fixed capital include:

Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E): Land, buildings, machinery, vehicles, and other tangible assets used in production or operations.

Intangible Assets: Patents, trademarks, copyrights, and other intellectual property rights.

Working capital, on the other hand, represents the difference between a company"s current assets and current liabilities. It measures a company"s liquidity and ability to meet its short-term financial obligations. Examples of working capital include:

Current Assets: Cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and other assets that can be easily converted into cash within a year.

Current Liabilities: Accounts payable, short-term debt, accrued expenses, and other obligations due within a year.

Hence Farmer’s Plough and Computer is fixed capital while petrol and yarn is working capital. Hence only two pairs are correct.

58. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(c) Metaverse

(d) Virtual matrix

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

59. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-

Minimum capital requirement in WOS of foreign banks is 5 billion rupees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

RBI guidelines on foreign banks says that in case of wholly owned subsidiaries of foreign banks not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

for more info refer - https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/bs_viewcontent.aspx?Id=2758

60. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

As per Rule 2(1)(d) of the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014 expenditure that benefit company or employees is not considered CSR. Statement 1 is correct.

Company’s Act and CSR Rules make 2% of profit to be spent on CSR. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

For more info refer - https://www.mca.gov.in/Ministry/pdf/FAQ_CSR.pdf

61. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.

2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecraft.

3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:-

62. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I:

Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II:

Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Giant stars have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions that light up stars. Massive stars also use up the hydrogen fuel in their core faster, despite starting out with much more of it, meaning they live much shorter lives than dwarf stars.

63 Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:- Nitric oxide dilates blood vessels, raising blood supply and lowering blood pressure. Conversely, it helps protect tissues from damage due to low blood supply.

64. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

ANS:- B

EXPLANATION:-

65. Consider the following aircraft:

1.Rafael

2. MiG-29

3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:-The Rafale, a 4.5-generation fighter, stands in stark contrast. With proven stealth characteristics, it operates in multiple air forces and combat zones. The Mikoyan MiG-29 (NATO reporting name: Fulcrum) is a 4th-generation jet fighter aircraft designed in the Soviet Union for an air superiority role. The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-engine, 4.5 generation delta wing multirole combat aircraft.

66 In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:- D or B

EXPLANATION:- 

67. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Water vapour

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air.

68. Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(c) Long duration energy storage

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

ANS:-  C

EXPLANATION:- Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge). PSH acts similarly to a giant battery, because it can store power and then release it when needed. The Department of Energy"s "Pumped Storage Hydropower" video explains how pumped storage works.

(69) "Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of: 

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(c) Vaccine production technologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Membrane bioreactors are combinations of membrane processes like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, the activated sludge process. These technologies are now widely used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment.

70 With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of: 

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(c) Money market

(d) Stock market

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

71 The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(c) Insects

(d) Reptiles

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-
Cicadas are medium to large insects, ranging in size from 2 to 5 cm (0.8 to 2 inches). Froghopper, (family Cercopidae), any of numerous species of small (less than 1.5 cm [0.6 inch] long) hopping insects (order Homoptera), worldwide in distribution, that produce a frothy substance known as spittle. Pond skaters are predatory bugs that pick off the dead and unfortunate animals that fall onto the water surface and are trapped there.

72 Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I:

Many chewing gums found in the market are considered pollution. a source of environmental

Statement-II:

Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

A72 - A

Chewing gum, while seemingly harmless, is actually a major source of pollution. They account for 100,000 tonnes of plastic pollution a year - the equivalent of 10 Eiffel Towers!
https://keenat.com/en/la-pollution-plastique-par-les-chewing-gums-un-probleme-meconnu-mais-reel/

73 Consider the following pairs: 

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

ANS:-D

EXPLANATION:-

indri, (Indri indri), slender, long-limbed primate found in the forests of Madagascar. elk, (Cervus elaphus canadensis), the largest and most advanced subspecies of reddeer (Cervus elaphus), found in North America and in high mountains of Central Asia. Wild bonobos can only be found in forests south of the Congo River in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC).
74. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1 It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.

2 World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.

3 The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 (P)

(d) 2 and 3

ANS:-

EXPLANATION:-

75. Consider the following statements

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by marking. scent

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

ANS:- A

Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Breeding occurs at any time of the year and a pair of lions can mate up to 40 times in a day. In any one pride, females tend to give birth at the same time. A litter of one to six, usually two or three, is born after a gestation period of 100-119 days. A female normally gives birth every 18 - 26 months, but if an entire litter is lost, she may mate again within a few days. Cheetahs belong to the "purring cats" subfamily and as such do not roar. Leopards of both sexes patrol their ranges and scent-mark trees, bushes and rocks with urine mixed with anal gland secretions. Scraping, urine-spraying and tree-clawing are most commonly used by Leopards.

76 Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers" ?

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.x

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

100 Million Farmers has bold objectives for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero, nature-positive, and that increase farmer resilience. All three objectives are critical to achieve a successful transition.

77. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage

2. Biomass generators

3. Fuel cells

4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All four

ANS:- D

EXPLANATION:- Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer"s side of the meter. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include: roof top solar photovoltaic units. wind generating units. battery storage.

78. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(c) Sandalwood

(d) Silk cotton

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

Insects are considered as one of the best pollinators. They pollinate the flowers and in turn the flowers provide nectar and pollen as floral rewards. Hence, both species are benefitted. A very close relationship is found between fig plants and female wasps. It has been observed that a particular species of fig is pollinated by a particular species of wasp only. Hence there is a tight one to one relationship. The female wasp lays eggs in the
fruits of the fig and uses the seeds to feed the developing larvae. While searching for suitable egg laying sites, the wasp pollinates the flowers of fig plants. This relationship between figs and wasps is so profound that they cannot live independently. This process of mutual evolutionary change that occurs between two species as they interact with one another is called coevolution. Fig plants and wasps are a very good example of coevolution.

79 Consider the following:

1. Butterflies

2. Fish

3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c)All three

(d) None

ANS:- C

EXPLANATION:-

Papilio antimachus, also called African giant swallowtail, is the most poisonous butterfly in the world. It contains a lot of cardiac steroid toxins. The toxin in a male Papilio antimachus can poison 20 cats. Species of puffer fish (the family Tetraodontidae) are the most poisonous in the world,
and the second most poisonous vertebrate after the golden dart frog.

80. Consider the following:

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

A80 - A

Cashew is the common name of a tropical evergreen tree Anacardium occidentale, in the family Anacardiaceae. It is native to South America and is the source of the cashew nut and the cashew apple, an accessory fruit. Papaya is native to Central America and is grown in tropical and warmer subtropical areas worldwide. As a native species to Andhra Pradesh, Red Sanders (also known as Red Sandalwood) use and trade are regulated by the State.

81. Consider the following airports: 

1. Donyi Polo Airport

2. Kushinagar International Airport

3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

82. With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

Altitude and height play an important role in vaporization of the water as water vapours are heavy and at higher altitude, the air density decreases. Thus, it becomes difficult for heavier particles that make water vapours to get vaporized. Hence, the rate of water vaporization decreases with increase in altitude. The water vapor concentration goes higher as we near the equator because this is the part of Earth where the Sun"s rays are stronger.

83. Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.

2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.

3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a)Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(c) Humid subtropical climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

ANS:- A

EXPLANATION:-

Equatorial climate equatorial air masses. Air temperature is constant (+24–28 °C) and there is much rain throughout the year (from 1500 to 5000 mm). Rain falls faster than water can evaporate from the ground.

84. With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A84 - C

The magnitude of Coriolis force is determined by wind speed. The higher the wind speed, the greater the deflection. Coriolis effect is maximum at the poles and zero at the equator. Coriolis force always acts in a direction that is perpendicular to the moving object"s axis.
 

85. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator

2. Tropic of Cancer

3. Tropic of Capricorn

4 Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

A85 - D

On 21st June, the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. Since a large portion of the northern hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June. This position of the earth is called the summer solstice.
 

86. One of the following regions has the world"s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(c) Kikori Basin ?

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

A86 - B

The world"s largest tropical peatland is in the Democratic Republic of Congo. The Congo Basin’s peatlands, an essential bulwark in the fight against climate change because they contain the largest stock of carbon held in tropical peat in the world, are 15% bigger than previously thought, according to research published in Nature Geoscience.

87. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and poly-fluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 

1 PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

2 PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

3 Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

A87 - D

88. Consider the following: 

1. Carabid beetles

2. Centipedes

3. Flies

4. Termites

5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

A88 - C

Wasps and flies contain the vast majority of insect parasitoids. There are over 70,000 parasitoid species across the globe. Two beetle families, Ripiphoridae (450 species) and Rhipiceridae, are largely parasitoids, Unlike most insects, termites have no known parasitoids. Certain fungi, nematodes, mites, and protozoan have been associated with termite colonies.

89 Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut Planat

2. Horse-gram Chickpen

3. Soybean 2

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b)Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

ANS:-

EXPLANATION:-

90. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category (Protection) Act, 1972. in the Wild Life

Statement-II:

The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

A90 - C

Indian flying foxes considered as vermin cause extensive damage to fruit orchards, and are therefore considered pests in many regions. The Indian flying fox is frugivorous or nectarivorous, i.e. it eats fruits or eat blossoms and drink nectar from flowers.

 91. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-11:

Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

A91 - D

Insolation reaches the earth"s surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves, Hence energy leaving the earth"s surface i.e. terrestrial radiation heats up the atmosphere more than the incoming solar radiation i.e. insolation. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (such as water vapor and carbon dioxide) absorb most of the Earth"s emitted longwave infrared radiation, which heats the lower atmosphere.

92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II:

At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

A92 - A

The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
 

(93) Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d)All four

A93 = D
 

Q94. Which of the following is correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A94 - A
Isotherms are the lines joining places having equal temperatures. The isotherms deviate to the north over the Ocean and to the South Over the continent in January. The isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes and the temperature variation is more gradual in the Northern hemisphere. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe. It is much pronounced in the Siberian plain.

Q95.Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(c) Côte d"Ivoire and Ghana

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Answer = C
The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa.

Q96. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara-Gomati - Gandak - Kosi

(b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi

(c) Ghaghara-Gomati Kosi - Gandak

(d) Gomati Ghaghara - Kosi – Gandak
Answer = B

Q97. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II:

Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III:

Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is  correct and that explains Statement-1

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Answer = A
Rainfall is one of the reason for weathering of rocks Rain is 100% condensed atmospheric moisture other than some particulates and dissolved gases. Some of the dissolved gases can be carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, oxygen and nitrogen. There can be other pollutants.

Q98. Consider the following countries 

1. Finland

2. Germany

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four
Answer = B
The countries that surround the North Sea include the United Kingdom, France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, and Norway.

Q99. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None
Answer = B
Dhuandhar Falls" is located on the Narmada river. The Hundru Falls Ranchi is created on the course of the Subarnarekha River, Jog Falls, also called Gersoppa Falls, cataract of the Sharavati River, western Karnataka state, southwestern India.

Q100.  Consider the following information: 

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four
Answer = B
The Vosges are a range of medium mountains in Eastern France, near its border with Germany. The Alps are one of the highest and most extensive mountain ranges in Europe Appalachian Mountains, great highland system of North America, Andes Mountains or Andean Mountain Range are the longest continental mountain range in the world, forming a continuous highland along the western edge of South America. Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems. The Alps and Himalayas are examples of fold mountains that are formed at convergent boundaries due to the collision of two tectonic plates.