UPSC Prelims Detailed Answer Key 2023

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023

UPSC conducted Civil Services Prelims Examination on 28th May 2023. The paper was easy for some and difficult for some. GS Question were mix of static and dynamic. CSAT paper is getting difficult year after year. Let us look at the answers of GS Paper :

Q1. In which one of the following regions was dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent buddhist centre under the mahasanghikas. located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(c) Kalinga

(d) Magadha

Ans : A

Currently name of Dhanyakatakam is dharanikota and is located in andhra. It is famous for the great amravati stupa. In ancient times it was famous for viharas.


 
Q2. With reference to ancient india, consider the statements :

1.The concept of stupa is  buddhist in origin.

2. Stupa was generally  a repository of relics.

3. stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in buddhist tradition.

how many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

Statement 1 is incorrect as stupa has origin in pre buddhist era. Stupas (stoop-ahs) were originally traditional burial mounds for everyday people in ancient India. They had no religious significance.

Statement 2 is correct. Stupas are generally repository of relics.

Statement 3 is also correct.

 

Q3. With reference to Ancient south india, korkai, poompuhar and muchiri were well known as 

(a) Capital cities

(b) Ports

(c) Centers of iron-and-steel marking

(d) Shrines of jain tirthankaras

Ans : B

• All the places mentioned in question were well known in ancient india as ports.

 

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘vattakirutal’ as mentioned in sangam poems?

(a) Kings empolying women bodyguards

(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical metters

(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Ans : D

This practice was done by kings defeated in battle. They performed ritual of fasting till death through starvation.

 

Q5. Consider the following dynasties :

1.Hoysala

2. Gahadavala 

3. Kakatiya

4. Yadav
how many of the above dynasties established yheir kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three

(d) None

Ans : D

1. Hoysala - 11th century

2. Gahadavala - Kannauj 11th century

3. Kakatiya - 9th century 

4. Yadava dynasty - 9th century

 

Q6. with reference to ancient indian history, consider the following pairs :

Literary work                         Author

1.Devichandragupta            :  bilhana

2. Hammira-mahakavya      :  nayachandra suri

3. Milinda-panha                  :  nagarjuna

4. Nitivakyamrita                  :  somadeva suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Ans : C

1. Devichandragupta - Vishakhadatta

2. Hammira - Mahakavya Nayachandra suri

3. Milinda panha - Nagasena or Nagarjuna

4. Nitivakyamrita - Somdeva

 

Q7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plants life, but also of rocks, running water and many others natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient india?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Shaivism

(d) Vaishnavism

Ans : B

Jainism believes that every living has a soul. 

The Jain ecological philosophy is virtually synonymous with the principle of ahimsa (nonviolence) which runs through the tradition like a golden thread. Ahimsa is a principle that Jains teach and practice not only towards human beings but towards all nature.

 

Q8. Who among the following rulers of vijayanagara empire constructed a large dam across tungabhadra river and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long form the river tp the capital city?

(a) Devaraya 1

(b) Mallikarjuna

(c) Vira vijaya

(d) Virupaksha

Ans : A

Devaraya I constructed dam on Tungabhadra river.

 

Q9. Who among the following rules of medieval Gujarat surrendered diu to portuguese?

(a) Ahmad shah

(b) Mahmud begarha

(c) Bahadur 

(d) Muhammad shah

Ans : C

 

Q10. By which one of the following acts was the governer general of bengal designed as the governer general of india?

(a) The regulating act

(b) The pitt"s india act

(c) The charter act of 1793

(d) The charter act of 1833

Ans : D

 

Q11. In essence, what does ‘due process of law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

Ans : A / C

Explanation for A option : In India the principles of natural justice are provided under  Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution. With the introduction of concept of substantive and procedural due process in Article 21, all that fairness which is included in the principles of natural justice can be read into article 21. The violation of principles natural justice results in arbitrariness and such decision is said to be void or voidable

Explanation for C option : America is guided by the principle of due process of law. The government must follow duly-enacted laws when it seeks to restrict or deny fundamental rights, including a person’s rights to life, liberty or property. In essence, it means that government must treat its citizens fairly by following laws and established procedures in everything it does.
Source: Legal journal of America
 

Q12. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 :
in india, prisons are managed by state governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-2 :
in india, prisons are governed by the prisons act,1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of provincial governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct and statement-2 is the correct explanation for statement-1 

(b) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct and statement-2 is not the correct explanation for statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct

Ans : A

Prisons, and their administration, is a state subject covered by item 4 under the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. The management and administration of prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State governments, and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison manuals of the respective state governments. Thus, the states have the primary role, responsibility and authority to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations.

In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and Section 59 of this Act which deals with the power to make rules states that the State Government may make rules consistent with this act.
 

 

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the ‘constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Ans : C

 

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment 

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Ans : A / B

Explanation for option A : The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide "special consideration" for weaker sections of society.

Explanation of option B : As the term “widely” has been used in the question we can opt for  42nd constitutional amendment. Because the main aim behind bringing this amendment was to limit the judicial intervention and interpretation on fundamental rights. It was because of that only we refer 42nd amendment as ‘Mini constitution’.
 

Q15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission 

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

Ans : A

 

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid..

2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one

(b) Only two 

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D

 

Q17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint  sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) Non

Ans : B

 

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a Community Reserve

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 

2. hunting is not allowed in such area

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : D
All statements are correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2003, which updated the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, created these types of protected zones. Any community or private land may be designated by the State Government as a Community Reserve provided the inhabitants of that community or the person concerned consent to provide such areas for the preservation of the local flora and fauna as well as their customs, cultures, and practises.

 

Q19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements : 

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an order of the President. 

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the place through an Order of the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are

(a) Only one

(b) Only two 

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B
 

Q20. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. 

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term "efficiency of administration".

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

 

Q21. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 India, despite having deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production

Statement-11: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-11 are correct and Statement- is the correct explanation for Statement-l 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-l are correct and Statement-1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-Il is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

Statement 1 is correct: Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India. It accounts for 55% of the country"s energy need. The Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD) has identified a total of 3,50. 438 tonne (t) in situ U308 (2.97.170t U) uranium deposits in in forty four (44) uranium deposits in Andhra Pradesh. Telangana. Jharkhand, Meghalaya. Rajasthan. Karnataka. Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Uranium enriched to at least 60% is not typically required for the production of electricity. The enrichment level necessary for electricity generation in nuclear power plants is much lower: Most commercial nuclear reactors use uranium fuel enriched to around 3% to 5% of the isotope uranium-235 (U-235), with the remaining uranium consisting mostly of the non-fissile isotope uranium-238 (U-238). This level of enrichment is sufficient for sustained nuclear fission reactions that release energy in the form of heat, which is then used to generate electricity.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1 : Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-2 : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-ll is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II in not the correct explanation for Statement-l

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

Statement 2 is correct: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are a group of mammals that give birth to relatively undeveloped young, which then continue to develop and nurse in a pouch on their mother"s belly. They are most commonly associated with Australia and nearby islands, where they have diversified into a wide range of species: Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not accurate to say that Marsupials can only thrive in montane grasslands with no predators Marsupials are a diverse group of mammals that occupy a range of habitats, including forests. woodlands. shrublands, and even deserts: Australia. which is home to the majority of marsupial species, has various ecosystems where marsupials thrive. For example, kangaroos and wallabies are well adapted to open grasslands and savannas, where they can graze on vegetation. However, other marsupials like koalas inhabit forested areas and feed on eucalyptus leaves Some species, such as the sugar glider, are arboreal and live in trees.

 

Q23. "Invasive Species Specialist Group" (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The international Union for conservation of nature  

(b) The United Nations Environment programme

(c) The united nations world Commission for Environment and Development 

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Ans : A

Option a is correct. The Invasive species specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, oraganized under the auspices of the species survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It was developed between 1998 and 2000 as part of the global initiative on invasive species led by the erswhile Global Invasive Species Programme(GISP).

 

Q24. Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque

2. Malabar Civet

3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

                

Statement 1 is incorrect : Lion-tailed macaque is diurnal, meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours. When they’re active, they will spend half the day foraging, and the other half will be spent resting or finding new areas to forage.[4] Unlike other macaques, it typically avoids humans when possible. In group behavior, the lion-tailed macaque is much like other macaques, living in hierarchical groups of usually 10 to 20 members, which usually consist of few males, typically 1-3, and many females.

Statement 2 is correct : The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use.The Malabar Civet is a critically endangered species found in the Western Ghats of India. It is a solitary and secretive animal that inhabits dense tropical forests and is known for its distinctive black or dark brown fur with large white spots. It has a long body, a pointed snout, and a long tail. Being primarily nocturnal, the Malabar Civet has adaptations such as excellent night vision and acute senses that allow it to navigate and hunt in low-light conditions. It feeds on a variety of small mammals, birds, insects, fruits, and other vegetation.

Statement 3 is correct : Sambar are nocturnal or crepuscular. During the day, Sambar Deer typically seek shade and rest in dense vegetation or near water bodies to avoid the heat. As the evening approaches, they become more active and start foraging for food, such as grasses, leaves, shoots, fruits, and other plant materials. They may continue their activities into the night, making them partially nocturnal. The Sambar Deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species found in various parts of South and Southeast Asia, including India. While Sambar Deer are primarily crepuscular, meaning they are most active during dawn and dusk, their activity patterns can vary depending on factors such as habitat, climate, and predation risk.

 

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(c) Honeybees

(d) Wasps

Ans : C

Option a is correct : Waggle dance is a term used in beekeeping and ethology for a particular figure-eight dance of the honey bee. By performing this dance, successful foragers can share information about the direction and distance to patches of flowers yielding nectar and pollen, to water sources, or to new nest-site locations with other members of the colony.

The waggle dance and the round dance are two forms of dance behaviour that are part of a continuous transition. As the distance between the resource and the hive increases, the round dance transforms into variations of a transitional dance, which, when communicating resources at even greater distances, becomes the waggle dance.

 

Q26. Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.

2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.

3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.

4. Some mushrooms have biolumi nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : D

Properties and Benefits of Mushrooms
St-1: Mushrooms Decrease the risk of cancer, Research shows that shiitake mushrooms, in particular, help to keep cholesterol levels low. Effects of eating mushrooms on mild cognitive impairment (MCI. In a study in Singapore, participants who ate more than two cups of mushrooms a week had a 50% lower risk of developing MCI).

St-2: Magic mushrooms (also called shrooms or mushrooms) are a type of mushroom that contains the drugs psilocybin or psilocin. Multiple clinical trials support psilocybin"s ability to reduce depression symptom severity, including in people with treatment-resistant depression.

St-3: many mushroom species are substantial sources of biologically active compounds, including those that possess insecticidal activities.

St-4: the mushrooms only glow at night. They don"t glow bright enough during the day to be extra visible. The glowing parts of the fungi can come from the mycelia, the mushrooms, or both parts. Bioluminescent Fungi. Fungi produce an eerie green light on the mushroom caps. 

 

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.

2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

The Indian palm squirrel or three-striped palm squirrel (Funambuluspalmarum) is a species of rodent in the family Sciuridae (includes tree squirrels, ground squirrels (including chipmunks and prairie dogs, among others), and flying squirrels.)found naturally in India (south of the Vindhyas) and Sri Lanka.

Nesting mostly in self-dug burrows underground, but also make dens in rocky outcroppings and in cavities at the bottom of trees.Ground squirrels nest on the ground, digging burrows, a system of tunnels underground, to live in. They hibernate during the winter in these underground burrows.
Tree squirrels hide away in nests or dens in trees and food to keep warm during the winter.  Most tree squirrel nests are called dreys, which are made up of clumped-together collections of leaves, twigs, bark, moss, and other compressed materials. 

They are usually very protective of their food sources, often guarding and defending them from birds and other squirrels. Unlike some other species of squirrel, Indian palm squirrel do not hibernate.

Indian palm squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds.

 

Q28. Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.

2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 

3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

Microbes isolated from the vents achieve optimal growth at temperatures higher than 100 °C. Noteworthy examples are Pyrobolus and Pyrodictium, archaea that grow at 105 °C and survive autoclaving. Both the thermophiles and the hyperthermophiles require specialized heat-stable enzymes that are resistant to denaturation and unfolding.Archaebacteria (Thermophiles) are ancient forms of bacteria found in hot water springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. They are able to survive in high temperatures (which far exceed 100°C) because their bodies have adapted to such environmental conditions.

Microbial growth or metabolic activity has been reported in permafrost bacteria at ?10°C (11) and in the antarcticcryptoendolithic microbial community at temperatures between ?5 and ?10°C (7, 28), and the temperature limit of bacterial growth in frozen food is generally considered to be ?8°C (9). In arctic and antarctic lichens, photosynthetic activity has been observed in a similar temperature range (12) and, more recently, at ?17°C (23).

Microorganisms that grow optimally at pH less than 5.55 are called acidophiles. For example, the sulfur-oxidizing Sulfolobus spp. isolated from sulfur mud fields and hot springs in Yellowstone National Park are extreme acidophiles. These archaea survive at pH values of 2.5–3.5. Species of the archaean genus Ferroplasma live in acid mine drainage at pH values of 0–2.9.

 

Q29. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(c) Otter

(d) Sloth bear

Ans : B

Orangutans are among the most intelligent primates. They have human-like long-term memory, routinely use a variety of sophisticated tools in the wild and construct elaborate sleeping nests each night from foliage and branches

 

Q30. Consider the following:

1. Aerosols

2. Foam agents

3. Fire retardants

4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : D

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases (GHGs) commonly used in a wide variety of applications, including refrigeration, air-conditioning (AC), building insulation, fire extinguishing systems, and aerosols.

HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. Most HFCs are contained within equipment, so emissions are the result of wear, faulty maintenance, or leakage at the end of a product’s lifetime.

 

Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.

2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.

3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

Statement 1 is correct:The Jhelum rises from a deep spring at Vernag, in western Jammu and Kashmir union territory. The river meanders northwestward from the northern slope of the PirPanjal Range through the Vale of Kashmir to Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and forms the largest shallow freshwater. It is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas. The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams.

Statement 3 is correct: Kanwar Lake is located 22 km north-west of Begusarai town. It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Gandak River, a tributary of Ganga, in the geological past.

 

Q32. Consider the following pairs :

Port                                    well known as

1. Kamarajar Port:              : First major port in India registered as a company

2. Mundra Port                  : Largest privately owned port in India

3. Visakhapatnam port     : Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans : B

Pair 3 incorrect.: Largest container port in India is Jawaharlal Nehru port NHAVASAVA

 

Q33. Consider the following trees: 

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)

2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 

3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Jackfruit are evergreen tree that are native to India and Malaysia, that have spread to Sri Lanka, China, South-east Asia and to tropical Africa. They are cultivated for the large fruits that can vary in shape and size, and for timber.

Statement 2 is correct: Mahua is a medium-sized deciduous tree, which grows to a height of 16-20 m.

Statement 3 is correct: teak, (genus Tectonagrandis), large deciduous tree of the family Verbenaceae, or its wood, one of the most valuable timbers. Teak has been widely used in India for more than 2,000 years.

 

Q34. Consider the following statements: 

1. India has more arable area than China.

2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.

3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

Statement 1 is correct: India has the most arable land in the world followed by the United States, Russia, China and Brazil.India and the United States account for roughly 22% of the world"s arable land.

Statement 2 is correct: India-7,15,559 sq. Kms; China 6,90,070 sq. Kms

Statement 3 is incorrect: India 973000 Kg/Hectare; China 6.5 Tons/ Hectare

 

Q35. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(c) Naupada Swamp 

(d) Rann of Kutch

Ans : D

 

Q36. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of india, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Copper

(c) Iron

(d) Titanium

Ans : D 

Ilmenite (FeO. TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief minerals of titanium. Titanium dioxide occurs in polymorphic forms as rutile, anatase (octahedrite) and brookite. Though, brookite is not found on a large-scale in nature, it is an alteration product of other titanium minerals.

 

Q37. About three-fourths of world"s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo

(d) Kazakhstan

Ans : C

The Democratic Republic of Congo is the leader among the world"s top cobalt-producing countries, accounting for more than 70% of global output.

The Democratic Republic of the Congo has the largest cobalt reserves in the world, at some four million metric tons as of 2022. As the total global cobalt reserves amount to 8.3 million metric tons, this means that the DR Congo"s cobalt reserves account for nearly half of the world"s reserves of the metal

 

Q38. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(c) South Sudan

(d) Uganda

Ans : A

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

 

Q39. Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 

2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 

3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Biligirirangana Hills is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District) in South India.
The hills are located at the north-west of the Western Ghats and the westernmost edge of the Eastern Ghats
The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India which rises in eastern Gujarat running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh and ends in Chhattisgarh.

Statement 3 is incorrect:Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh. These ranges are predominantly present in Tirupati district of the Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh, India.

 

Q40. With reference to India"s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 

2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.

3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D

Statement 1 is incorrect: East-West Corridors runs through Porbandar–Rajkot-Samakhiali–Radhanpur(in Gujarat)–to Bongaigaon - NalbariBijni–Guwahati–Nagaon–Dabaka–Silchar) in Assam).

Statement 2 is incorrect: India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway (IMT Highway, is a highway under upgrade under India"s Look East policy that will connect Moreh (Manipur), India with Mae Sot, Thailand via Myanmar.

Statement 3 is incorrect:BCIM corridor proposes to link Kunming in China’s Yunnan province with Kolkata,passing through nodes such as Mandalay in Myanmar and Dhaka in Bangladesh before heading toKolkata.

 

Q41. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-1:
Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: 
InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002".

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : D

1. Statement I is incorrect as interst and dividend both are taxable in the hands of unit holders. 

2. InvITs and REITs now recognised as borrowers under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest (SARFAESI) Act, lenders to these trusts, have adequate statutory enforcement options

 

Q42. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-1:
In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. 

Statement-II:
Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : A

Statement I and II bith are correct and statement II is correct explanation of statement I.

 

Q43. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-1:
Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-11:
Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : A

Carbon markets are basically a place when carbon credits are bought and sold. 

They transfer resources from private parties to state. In case of emission beyond requisite limit, they have to purchase carbon credit often from state.

 

Q44. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting "Open Market operations"

(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems 

(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

(d) Regulating the functions of non-banking Financial Institutions

Ans : A

Sterlisation operations are conducted by RBI to protect the economy from shocks caused by frequent movement of foreign exchange. They are performed in form of open market operation where government securities are bought and sold.

 

Q45. Consider the following markets :

1. Government Bond Market

2. Call Money Market

3. Treasury Bill Market

4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : B

Capital market is a market for long term funds. Money market is a market for short term funds. 

Government bond market and stock market can be included in capital market while call money and treasury bill market is part of money market.

 

Q46. Which one of the following best describes the concept of "Small Farmer Large Field?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Ans : B

Small Farmer Large Field concept got popular in Vietnam. In this marginal farmers come together and share their resources to bring down their per unit cost.

 

Q47. Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.

2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.

3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

1. Statement I is correct. Gol does provide MSP on Nigerseeds 

2. According to Government website, Niger is cultivated as kharif crop. Hence Statement II is also correct. 

3. Statement III is also correct.

 

Q48. Consider the investments in the following assets: 

1. Brand recognition

2. Inventory

3. Intellectual property

4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : C

• Tangible Investment: Land, factory, inventory etc 

• Intangible Investment: Brand, Intellectual Property, Mailing list of clients, Customer contacts etc.

 

Q49. Consider the following:

1.Demographic performance 
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government 
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four 

(d) All five

Ans : B

For horizontal tax devolution finance commission considered following variables:

• Area

• Population

•Demographic performace

• Forest and ecology

• Tax effort

• Income distance


Q50. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing 

2. Mass rapid transport

3. Health care

4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : D

 

Q51. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. 

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

 

Q52. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action                                                   The Act under which it is covered

1. Unauthorized wearing                     : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 
of police or military 
uniforms

2. Knowingly misleading                      : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
or otherwise inter fering with a 
police officer or military officer 
when engaged in their duties

3. Celebratory gunfire which               : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 
can endanger the personal safety
of others

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

 

Q53. Consider the following pairs:

Regions often mentioned in news              Reason for being in news

1. North Kivu and Ituri                                 :  War between Armenia and Azerbaijan

2. Nagorno-Karabakh                                 :  Insurgency in Mozambique

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia                     : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D
 

Q54. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: 
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II:
The "Arab Peace Initiative" mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : A

 

Q55. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding formance by a sportsperson over period of last four years

2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson

3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams

4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : B

 

Q56. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.

2. The official mascot was named Thambi". 

3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 

4. The trophy for the winning team in the women"s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

Ans : B

 

Q57. Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in news     Country where it is located

1. Donbas                                                : syria

2. Kachin                                                 : ethiopia

3. tigray                                                   : North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D

 

Q58. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements

(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases

(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert

(d) Successful coups

Ans : D

 

Q59. Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants

2. Oil refineries

3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C 

All the above industries can be decarbonized with the help of Green hydrogen. Green hydrogen is expected to play a prominent role in decarbonisingheavy industries, including oil refineries, steel mills and fertiliser plants.

Green hydrogen is produced by breaking down water in an electrolyser using only renewable energy, resulting in no carbon emissions.

The hydrogen can then be combined with nitrogen to make green ammonia, avoiding hydrocarbons in the process. Green ammonia is used to store energy and make fertilisers. Green hydrogen could become an alternative to coal in steel mills and fossil fuels in long-haul transport like shipping and trucking.

 

Q60. Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.

2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India"s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : C

Statement 1 is correct : The G20 was formed in 1999 in response to the Asian financial crisis. The crisis had shown that the existing forum for international economic cooperation, the G7, was not representative of the world"s major economies. The G20 was created to bring together the finance ministers and central bank governors of the world"s 20 largest economies, including both developed and developing countries.

Statement 2 is correct : High Level Symposium on Digital Public Infrastructure for Innovative, Resilient, Inclusive Growth and Efficient Governance of G20. Leveraging DPI for inclusive growth and development is being steered by the G20 India Presidency as a key priority.

 

Q61. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations

(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India

(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States

(d) construction of railways Colonial India

Ans : A

All are related to archaeological excavations.

 

Q62. Consider the following pairs:

Site                     Well known for

1. Besnagar       : Shaivite cave shrine

2. Bhaja             : Buddhist cave shrine

3. Sittanavasal  : Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

1. Besnagar was known as Bhelsa during the medieval period. It became famous for the temple of Sun god Bhillasvanin. It was ruled by the Later Gupta king Devagupta and Rashtrakuta king Krishna III. So First pair is incorrect.

2. Bhaja Caves are a group of 22 rock-cut caves dating back to the 2nd century BC located in the city of Pune, India. The caves are 400 feet above the village of Bhaja, on an important ancient trade route running from the Arabian Sea eastward into the Deccan Plateau. 

3. Sittanavasal Cave is a 2nd-century Tamil ?ramana complex of caves in Sittanavasal village in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu, India. It is a jain cave shrine.

 

Q63. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-1 :
7th August is declared as the National  Handloom Day.

statement-2 :
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1 

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : B

 

Q64. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-1:
one of the standard sizes of the national flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II: 
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : B

 

Q65. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: 

Statement-1:
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-11:
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

 

Q66. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II: 
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

 

Q67. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-1:
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the trade and Technology Council". 

Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : C

 

Q68. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.

Statement-II:
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India"s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-11 is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : A

 

Q69. Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 

2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities

3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : A

 

Q70. Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM). 

2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 

3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : A

 

Q71. Consider the following countries: 

1.Bulgaria

2. Czech Republic 

3. Hungary

4. Latvia

5. Lithuania

6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) Only five

Ans : A


Q72. With reference to the Earth"s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles. 

(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.

(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Ans : C

Option a is incorrect: On average, the insolation received at the equator is roughly two to three times that received at the poles, rather than 10 times. This variation in insolation is one of the primary factors contributing to the temperature differences between equatorial and polar regions.

Option b is incorrect: Solar radiation consists of various wavelengths, including ultraviolet (UV), visible light, and infrared (IR). While it is true that a significant portion of solar radiation is in the form of infrared rays, it is not accurate to state that they constitute two-thirds of insolation. The exact proportion of infrared radiation in insolation can vary depending on multiple factors, such as atmospheric conditions and the position of the sun.

Option c is correct: Infrared waves, specifically in the form of longwave radiation, are absorbed by certain greenhouse gases, including water vapor, in the lower atmosphere. Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the Earth"s atmosphere, and it has strong absorption properties in the infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. As infrared radiation passes through the atmosphere, water vapor molecules can absorb and re-emit a significant portion of the longwave radiation. This process contributes to the greenhouse effect, where certain gases trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to an overall increase in global temperatures.

Option d is incorrect: Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves in solar radiation. The visible spectrum refers to the range of electromagnetic waves that are visible to the human eye, which includes wavelengths between approximately 400 to 700 nanometers. Infrared waves, on the other hand, exist at longer wavelengths beyond the red end of the visible spectrum. They have wavelengths longer than approximately 700 nanometers. Infrared radiation is typically divided into three categories: near-infrared (NIR), mid-infrared (MIR), and far-infrared (FIR), with increasing wavelengths.

 

Q73. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:
The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statement-II:
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : D

Statement 1 is incorrect

Statement 2 is correct: The high levels of precipitation and year-round warmth in tropical rainforest regions contribute to the breakdown of organic matter and the rapid recycling of nutrients within the ecosystem. This process, known as nutrient cycling, leads to the accumulation of nutrients in the soil. Tropical rainforest soils are often classified as "oxisols" or "ultisols." Oxisols are typically found in older rainforest regions and are characterized by their highly weathered nature. Despite being highly weathered, oxisols can still contain substantial amounts of nutrients due to the efficient nutrient cycling processes. 

 

Q74. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: 
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

Statement-II: 
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : A

Statement 1 is correct  : The temperature contrast between continent and ocean is greater in winter in higher latitude compared to lower latitude. But overall, In the winter, the sun"s rays strike the Earth less directly, which means that the land cools down more slowly than the ocean. This difference in temperature is what causes the wind to blow from the land to the ocean, bringing warmer air to the coast.

Statement 2 is correct explanation : the temperature contrast between continent and ocean is greater during summer than in winter. This is because water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it takes more energy to change the temperature of water than it does to change the temperature of land.

 

Q75. Consider the following statements: 

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.

2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : C

Statement 1 is incorrect

Statement 2 is correct: The high levels of precipitation and year-round warmth in tropical rainforest regions contribute to the breakdown of organic matter and the rapid recycling of nutrients within the ecosystem. This process, known as nutrient cycling, leads to the accumulation of nutrients in the soil. Tropical rainforest soils are often classified as "oxisols" or "ultisols." Oxisols are typically found in older rainforest regions and are characterized by their highly weathered nature. Despite being highly weathered, oxisols can still contain substantial amounts of nutrients due to the efficient nutrient cycling processes.

 

Q76. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

1. None of them uses seawater.

2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.

3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : D

40% of India’s Thermal Power Plants Are in Water-Scarce Areas In India, the total number of 269 Thermal Power Plants. Out of these, 138 Thermal Power Plants are in the public sector and the remaining 131 Thermal Power Plants are in the private sector

 

Q77. ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(c) Producing biodegradable plastics

(d) Producing biochar from thermo- chemical conversion of biomass

Ans : A

Wolbachia are extremely common bacteria that occur naturally in 50 per cent of insect species, including some mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies and butterflies.

The World Mosquito Program"s innovative Wolbachia method is helping communities around the world prevent the spread of mosquito-borne disease.

It works everywhere that Aedes aegypti is found, it complements other techniques and has proven potential for long-term success.

 

Q78. Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively

2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 

3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters 

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively will help in retaining soil moisture thus helps in Sequestration in soil
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime will accelerate dissolution of CO2 from air
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters – A technique of anthropogenic sequestration, which is costly.

 

Q79. "Aerial metagenomics" best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals

(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Ans : A

Scientists were able to study DNA from bodies of water and soil to identify the species living there. But now, a more comprehensive application is being sought by sniffing DNA from thin air. This process is called aerial metagenomics.

Metagenomics refers to the application of sequencing techniques to analyse the totality of the genomic material present in a sample [1]. Currently, two main methods for studying microbial communities using high-throughput sequencing are used: marker gene studies and whole-genome shotgun (WGS) metagenomics.

 

Q80. "Microsatellite DNA" is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships. among species of fauna various

(b) Stimulating “stem cells” to transform into diverse functional tissues

(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants

(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Ans : A

Repetitive segments of DNA scattered throughout the genome in noncoding regions between genes or within genes (introns). They are often used as markers for linkage analysis because of their naturally occurring high variability in repeat number between individuals.

 

Q81. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.

2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 

3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : B

 

Q82. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 

2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth.

3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.

4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : C

 

Q83. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.

2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : A

Carbon fibres
Statement 1 is correct:Carbon fiber-reinforced composite materials are used to make aircraft and spacecraft parts, racing car bodies, golf club shafts, bicycle frames, fishing rods, automobile springs, sailboat masts, and many other components where light weight and high strength are needed.

Carbon Fiber Increases Fuel Efficiency: Using carbon fiber composites to build an airplane reduces its weight by up to 20%, versus the weight of a traditional aluminum plane.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon fibre waste can be recycled using four types of technologies.
Source:

 

Q84. Consider the following actions:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.

2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive

3. Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

Accelerometer

All statements are correct:The accelerometer sensor measures constant (gravity), time varying (vibrations) and quasi static (tilt) acceleration forces, which affect the device on the three axes (x, y and z) in meter per second squared (m/s2).

The accelerometer is a built-in component for measuring the acceleration of any mobile device. Motions like swinging, tilting, rotating, shaking is detected using accelerometer. The value of XYZ is used to calculate and detect the motions.

 

Q85. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 

2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.

3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B/C

Biofilter
Statement 1 is correct: The use of biofilters to removal of contaminants from wastewater and waste gases is being developed.

Statement 2 is correct: Ammonia is removed from an aquarium system through the use of a biofilter. The biofilter provides a substrate on which nitrifying bacteria grow. These nitrifying bacteria consume ammonia and produce nitrite, which is also toxic to fish.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Phosphorus is one of the most essential minerals for fish growth and bone mineralization which function primarily as structural component of hard tissues e.g., bone, exoskeleton, scale and teeth. But biofilter removes excessive phosphorus and doesn’t add more. (Debatable)

 

Q86. Consider the following pairs:

Objects in space     Description

1. Cepheids              : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space

2. Nebulae               : Stars which brighten and dim periodically

3. Pulsars                 : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : A

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:Cepheidsare stars which brigthen and dim periodically.
Pair 3 is correctly matched:A neutron starforms when the core of a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses. This produces a shock wave that blows away the rest of the star in a supernova explosion. Neutron stars typically pack more mass than our Sun into a ball about the size of a city, but above a certain mass, they must collapse into black holes.
Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds. Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles. These accelerated particles produce very powerful beams of light.

 

Q87. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(c) Israel

(d) Japan

Ans : D

Explanation:Option (d) is correct: Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)is a regional GNSS owned by the Government of Japan and operated by QZS System Service Inc. (QSS). QZSS complements GPS to improve coverage in East Asia and Oceania. Japan declared the official start of QZSS services in 2018 with 4 operational satellites, and plans to expand the constellation to 7 satellites by 2023 for autonomous capability

 

Q88. Consider the following statements:

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.

2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : D

Statement 1 is incorrect:Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initialphase of flight.

Statement 2 is incorrect:Agni-V is an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km.

 

Q89. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 

2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.

3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

Statement 1 is correct:Gold mining is one of the most destructive industries in the world. It can displace communities, contaminate drinking water, hurt workers, and destroy pristine environments. It pollutes water and land with mercury and cyanide, endangering the health of people and ecosystems.

Statement 2 is correct:Mercury emitted from the smokestacks of coal-fired power plants can fall from the atmosphere with rain, mist or chemical reactions.

Statement 3 is correct:Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure. Ideally, neither children nor adults should have any mercury in their bodies because it provides no physiological benefit.

 

Q90. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.

2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.

3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : C

Statement 1 is correct:Hydrogen can also serve as fuel for internal combustion engines. However, unlike FCEVs, these produce tailpipe emissions and are less efficient.Hydrogen engines burn hydrogen in an internal combustion engine, in just the same way gasoline is used in an engine.

Statement 2 is correct:Hydrogen blends of up to 5 percent in the natural gas stream are generally safe.

Statement 3 is correct:Cars that run on this clean energy have a hydrogen tank that connects to the fuel cell, where the electricity that powers the engine is generated. Fuel cell electric vehicles(FCEVs) signify a revolution in the energy and transport sector towards using fuel with a carbon-neutral footprint.

 

Q91. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the medium enterprises investments are those with in plant and machinery between 15 crore and 25 crore. 

2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : B

1. As per MSMED Amendment Act 2020, definition of medium enterprise is "Having investment of Rs.10 crore to Rs.50 crore and turnover of Rs.50 crore to Rs.250 crore"

2. All bank loans conforming to guidelines provided to MSMES are PSL.

 

Q92. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 

2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : C

1. It would be possible for digital currencies to be transferred internationally without use of SWIFT system.

2. CBDC or digital currency could be programmed in multiple ways. One such manner is assigning it a time frame in which it could be used.

 

Q93. In the context of finance, the term "beta" refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible

(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

Ans : D

Beta measures the correlation between price movement of a stock and overall movement in stock market measured through stock market indices like nifty or sensex.

 

Q94. Consider the following statements:

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.

2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.

3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : B

1. Ela Bhatt, who formed SEWA, organised poor and self- employed women workers such as weavers, potters, hawkers, and others in the unorganised sector, with the objective of enhancing their incomes. NABARD, in 1992, formed the SHG Bank Linkage Project, which is today the world"s largest microfinance project. So NABARD can be credited to have introduced the program. Statement I is incorrect.

2. If individual fail in repayment of loan, group takes the responsibility.

3. RRB, SCBS, Cooperative banks and other banks support SHGS.

 

Q95. Consider the following statements : 

Statement-1:
India"s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II :
Under India"s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : B
 

Q96. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1:
According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world"s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II:
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world"s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world"s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans : D

 

Q97. Consider the following statements: 

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police. cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans : A

 

Q98. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola

(b) Costa Rica

(c) Ecuador

(d) Somalia

Ans : D

 

Q99. Consider the following statements:

1. In  india, the biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.

2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : C

Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) are created as per the Biological Diversity Act 2002 for promoting conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biological diversity.

Option 1 is correct

Option 2 is also correct

The People’s Biodiversity Registers shall be maintained and validated by the Biodiversity Management Committees. It shall then be counter signed by the Board through its authorized officer.

The BMC shall also maintain a Register giving information about the details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted, details of the collection fee imposed and details of the benefits derived and the mode of their sharing from area within its jurisdiction.

 

Q100. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans : A

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