UPSC PRELIMS CSE 2022 GS QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWER KEY

Answer Key for SET-A

  1. Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Answer B.

Explanation: The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.

  1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
  1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
  1. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
  1. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer  C.

Explanation: An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
  1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
  1. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
  1. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as If inflation is too high, RBI will sell government securities to decrease money supply from the economy.

Statement 2 is correct as depreciation of rupee implies appreciation of dollar. This in turn means that demand for dollar is high than its supply. So RBI will sell dollars to improve its supply.

Statement 3 is correct as in case of fall in interest rates in foreign market might flood domestic market with dollars. To prevent its negative fallout in terms of depreciation of dollar and appreciation of rupee, RBI will buy dollars.

  1. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”. consider the following statements:
  1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
  1. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer: C

Explanation: Since the start of the pandemic, low-income countries have benefited from some attenuating measures. Domestic policies, together with low interest rates in advanced economies mitigated the financial impact of the crisis on their economies. The G20 put in place the DSSI to temporarily pause official debt payments to the poorest countries, followed by the Common Framework to help these countries restructure their debt and deal with insolvency and protracted liquidity problems. The Common Framework is intended to deal with insolvency and protracted liquidity problems, along with the implementation of an IMF-supported reform program. G20 official creditors—both traditional “Paris Club” creditors, such as France and the United States, and new creditors, such as China and India, which, as shown in the chart below, overtook the Paris Club as lenders in the last decade—agreed to coordinate to provide debt relief consistent with the debtor’s capacity to pay and maintain essential spending needs. The Common Framework requires private creditors to participate on comparable terms to overcome collective action challenges and ensure fair burden sharing.

  1. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
  1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
  1. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
  1. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as if the market overestimates future inflation, government will reduce borrowing costs by issuing indexed bonds rather than nominal bonds.

Statement 2 is correct. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. It is its main purpose.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Interest receives as well as capital gains both are taxable.

  1. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
  1. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B.

Explanation: Guidelines for Foreign Direct Investment on e-commerce sector:

  1. 100% FDI under automatic route is permitted in marketplace model of e- commerce.
  2. FDI is not permitted in inventory based model of e-commerce.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. The degree to which foreign e-commerce entities can own big sellers on platform is limited.

  1. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
  1. Farmers harvesting their crops
  1. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
  1. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
  1. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer A.

Explanation:  Non financial sectors are called as real sectors of the economy. So farmers harvesting the crops and textile mills converting raw cotton into fabric are real sectors.

  1. Which one of the following situations best. reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?                 (a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment(b) A foreign company investing in India. and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

    (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer D

Explanation: Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.

  1. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
  1. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer A.

Explanation : Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure as it serves long term purpose.

Debt financing i.e interest payment and equity financing such as dividend payment both are revenue expenditures.

  1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
  1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
  1. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer C.

Household saves in bank and bank invests in government securities as part of SLR requirement. So statement 1 is correct.

Dated securities issued through auction form large part of internal debt of Government.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  1. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  1. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  1. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 3 only.

Answer B

Explanation: Contempt of court is the power of the court to protect its own majesty and respect. The power is regulated but not restricted in the Contempt of Court Act, 1971.

  • The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution, so option 3 is incorrect
  • Article 129of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself & Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts, so option 2 is correct
  • In 1961, a committee headed by H.N. Sanyal, an Additional Solicitor General for the Government of India, was appointed to examine the application of contempt laws in India. The Sanyal Committee recommended that contempt proceedings should be initiated not by the courts themselves, but on the recommendation of a law officer of the government.[8][9]These recommendations were incorporated in the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, enacted by the Parliament of India, which is the current legislation governing contempt of courts in India, so Option 1 and 4 is correct.
  1. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
  1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  1. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The terms “patent attorney” and patent agent are often used interchangeably in India, there is a lot of difference between the two terms,  an attorney is an advocate. By virtue of this, a patent attorney is an individual who is entitled to deal with patent litigation by virtue of holding a law degree. A patent attorney or patent lawyer is an advocate who practices IP law.This means that an individual who has a law degree and has enrolled with a State Bar Council is an advocate who can deal with patent litigation and is hence a patent attorney, SO OPTION A IS INCORRECT AS PATENT ATTORNEYS CAN BE RECOGNISED AS ADVOCATES.

The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The inspections are carried out in the existing law colleges to consider whether such colleges can be allowed to be continued and also to concise. Granting of approval of affiliation to new law colleges when the apply to the Bar Council of India for imparting LL.B. courses.

SO OPTION B IS CORRECT

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  1. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  1. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president, SO OPTION 1 IS INORRECT

24th amendment made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to the  Constitutional Amendment bills, SO OPTION 2 IS CORRECT

The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill, SO OPTION 3 IS CORRECT

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
  1. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer B

Explanation: Council of Ministers is not a single body but a composite body, consisting of ministers of different ranks. The constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks, SO OPTION 1 IS INCORRECT

The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the COM shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003, SO OPTION 2 IS CORRECT

  1. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
  1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
  2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
  3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: B

  1. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
  1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
  1. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Explanation: For nominated MPs, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party. But, if they join a party thereafter, then they lose their seat, SO OPTION 1 IS INCORRECT

The law does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case, SO OPTION 2 IS CORRECT

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
  1. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

Explanation: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament, not Solicitor General is not allowed to do so, so OPTION 1 IS INCORRECT

The Attorney General of India may quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president of India. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice, so it is not given in CONSTITUTION, BUT IS CONVENTIONALLY, so OPTION 2 IS ALSO INCORRECT.

  1. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
  1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  1. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  1. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

  1. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
  1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
  1. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
  1. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation: Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

One of the objectives of this mission is To ensure national portability in the provision of health services (Statement 3 is correct)

Universal Health Coverage is an objective of Ayushman Bharat Mission not Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

  1. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
  1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
  2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
  3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings
  4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer A

Explanation: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President), SO OPTION 1 IS CORRECT

It is by convention that position of Deputy Speaker is offered to opposition party in India, SO OPTION 2 IS INCORRECT

In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. He decides whether a bill is a money bill or a non-money bill. They maintains discipline and decorum in the house and can punish a member for unruly behaviour by suspending him/her. They permit the moving of various kinds of motions and resolutions like the motion of no confidence, motion of adjournment, motion of censure and calling attention notice, SO OPTION 3 IS CORRECT

OPTION 4 IS INCORRECT

  1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Answer B.

 

 

  1. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
  1. Reduced seed requirement
  1. Reduced methane production
  1. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

 

Explanation: All the statements are correct. These are the benefits of SRI.

  1. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(c) Lake Oguta

(d) Lake Volta

Answer. B

Lake Faguibine is a lake in Mali on the southern edge of the Sahara Desert situated 80 km west of Timbuktu and 75 km north of the Niger River

Starting in the late 1980s, a drop in precipitation steadily dried the lake. By the late 1990s, the traditional livelihoods of fishing, agriculture, and livestock herding became impractical.

  1. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Answer. C

The Gandikota gorge which is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India. The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Peak                                            Mountains

  1. Namcha Barwa            Garhwal Himalaya
  1. Nanda Devi                  Kumaon Himalaya
  1. Nokrek                          Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer. B

  • Namcha Barwa is considered eastern most point of Great Himalayas
  • Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India, after Kangchenjunga, and the highest located entirely within the country. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of Kumaon Himalayas.
  • Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo hills
  1. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea

Answer. A

The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia.

  1. Consider the following countries:
  1. Azerbaijan
  1. Kyrgyzstan
  1. Tajikistan
  1. Turkmenistan
  1. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

a) 1, 2 and 5 only

b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 3, 4 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer. C

It is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan and India, to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan

  1. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
  1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
  1. Monazite contains thorium.
  1. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
  1. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer. B

Monazite is a mineral mainly containing rare earths and thorium-a prescribed substance Mostly in coastal sands of Kerala.

  1. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

a) First half of the month of June

b) Second half of the month of June

c) First half of the month of July

d) Second half of the month of July

Answer. B

June 21 will be the longest day of the year in Northern Hemisphere. Indirect way of asking Summer Solstice.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake                                        Location

  1. Hokera Wetland                           Punjab
  1. Renuka Wetland                     Himachal Pradesh
  1. Rudrasagar Lake                      Tripura
  1. Sasthamkotta Lake                Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer. B

  • Hokera- Jammu
  • Renuka – Himachal Pradesh
  • Rudra sagar- Tripura
  • Sasthamkotta – Kerala

31. Consider the following :

  1. Aarogya Setu

2. COWIN

3. DigiLocker

4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open – source digital platforms ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 , 3 and 4 only

c) 1 , 3 and 4 only

d) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

Answer: D

DIKSHA is built using Sunbird ED, a fully functional solution building block available as open-source software under MIT license and is part of Sunbird, a “Made in India, Made for the World” digital public good (DPG).

DigiLocker is an initiative by the government to offer Indian citizens a free platform to store and access important documents. The platform uses several open source technologies to deliver a mass solution and contributes back to the ever-growing community.

Co-WIN, which is owned by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, was developed using open source software. This type of software allows users to modify the source code and distribute it. Co-WIN went live in January 2021 for frontline workers and by May 1 it was accessible to everyone, when vaccination was opened up for all those over 18 years.

Aarogya Setu was made an Open-Source on may 2020.

32. With reference to Web 3-0 , consider the following statements :

  1. Web 3-0 technology enables people to control their own data .
  2. In Web 3-0 world , there can blockchain based social networks .
  3. Web 3-0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation .

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1 , 2 and 3

Answer: D

Web 3.0 is a decentralized internet to be run on blockchain technology, which would be different from the versions in use, Web 1.0 and Web 2.0.

In Web3, users will have ownership stakes in platforms and applications unlike now where tech giants control the platforms.

The large mass of creators and builders will leverage next-generation tools, co-opt themselves into self-governing organizations and participate in this new economy.

33. With reference to ” Software as a Service ( SaaS ) ” , consider the following statements

  1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields .
  2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices .
  3. Outlook , Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS .

Which of the statements given above correct ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1 , 2 and 3

Answer: D

SaaS is a method of software delivery. The advantage behind this method of delivery is that data can be accessed with an internet connection even if it is accessible from mobile, web browser in any device at any location. (Statement 2 is correct)

SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and change the designs. (Statement 1 is correct)

Statement 3 is correct since all are examples of SaaS

34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the ” Fractional Orbital Bombardment System ” often talked about in media ?

a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it space

b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions .

c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth .

d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface .

Answer: C

Explanation: Current affair

But missile concept were explained  in class of defence

The story goes that China launched a Long March rocket that employed a technique to propel an extremely maneuverable, nuclear-capable glider into orbit, allowing it to speed towards its target at hypersonic speed

To be sure, the Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is not a Chinese discovery. In the 1960s, the Soviet Uniondeveloped an orbital bombardment system that could carry a nuclear weapon into orbit at a lower trajectory than a traditional fixed-trajectory ballistic missile. The idea behind FOBS is, a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target.

  1. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum Computing

(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Answer:  B

Explanation:  Static

Lec 14 Science tech Gandhinagar Evening Batch, explain quantum computing

  • A classical computer performs operations using classical bits, which can be either 0 or 1.
  • Now, in contrast, a quantum computer uses quantum bits or qubits, which can be both 0 and 1 at the same time. It is this property that gives a quantum computer its superior computing power.
  1. Consider the following communication technologies:
  1. Closed-circuit Television
  1. Radio Frequency Identification
  1. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  D

  • Short-region wireless technology refers to the technology that can communicate wirelessly within a smaller diameter region, within a minimum level of one millimeter. The common short-region wireless communication modes are UWB, Wi-Fi, ZigBee and Bluetooth, RFID , WLAn , Closed Tv
  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
  1. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
  1. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

  • A biofilm comprises any syntrophic consortium of microorganisms in which cells stick to each other and often also to a surface. These adherent cells become embedded within a slimy extracellular matrix that is composed of extracellular polymeric substances. Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi and protists. One common example of a biofilm dental plaque, a slimy buildup of bacteria that forms on the surfaces of teeth.
  • By forming a biofilm, bacteria protect themselves from host defense, disinfectants, and antibiotics. Bacteria inside biofilm are much more resistant to antimicrobial agents than planktonic forms since bacteria that are unresisting to antimicrobial agents in any way can turn resistant after forming a biofilm
  1. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
  1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
  1. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
  2. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: C

  • Statement 1 and 3 correct
  • Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Bacteria is usually viewed in a negative light as something that makes you sick. However, you have two kinds of bacteria constantly in and on your body — good bacteria and bad bacteria. Statement 2 Incorrect as it does found narturally
  1. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
  1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
  1. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
  1. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(3) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

  • Current based question, vaccine types explain in scientech class lec 12 Health and disease
  • Covaxin is an inactivated viral vaccine. This vaccine is developed with Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero Cell-derived technology. They contain inactivated viruses, which can not infect a person but still can teach the immune system to prepare a defence mechanism against the active virus.
  • Sputnik V is a vaccine cocktail that combines two adenoviruses – human adenovirus serotype 26 and human adenovirus serotype five to deliver the gene for the SARS-CoV2 spoke protein into the body in a double-stranded DNA.
  • Serum Institutes Covishield uses the viral vector platform. It uses a chimpanzee adenovirus – ChAdOx1 – a type of common .
  1. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
  1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
  1. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
  1. Power grids could be damaged
  1. Intense auroras could occur over much. of the Earth.
  1. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
  1. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
  1. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: C

Lec 2 Science tech mission Aditya L1 study of solar flare explained in class Science & tech

Therefore, solar flares pose no direct danger to humans on Earth. However, this absorption of high-energy electromagnetic radiation can temporarily increase the ionization of the upper atmosphere, which can interfere with short-wave radio communication, and can temporarily heat and expand the Earth’s outer atmosphere.

41. Climate Action Tracker which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a

a)Database created by coalition research organizations

b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer: . A.

  • The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.” A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.

42. Consider the following statements

  1. The Climate Group ” is an international non – profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them .
  2. The International Energy Agency partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative ” EP100 “
  3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals .
  4. Some Indian companies are members EP100 .
  5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the ” Under 2 Coalition

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

a) 1 , 2 , 4 and 5

b) 1 , 3 and 4 only

c) 2 , 3 and 5 only

d) 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 and 5

Answer: B.

  • The Climate Group is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing.
  • It has grown its network to include over 500 multinational businesses in 175 markets worldwide. The Under2 Coalition, for which it is the Secretariat, is made up of over 260 governments globally, representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy.
  • EP100 is a global initiative led by the international non-profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. IEA is not involved.
  • Some Indian companies are members of EP 100.

43. ” If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth , then surely wetlands function as its kidneys . ” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement ?

a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff , subsoil percolation and evaporation .

b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish , crustaceans , molluscs , birds , reptiles and mammals thrive .

c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization .

d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients .

Answer: D

Just like kidney cleans the blood, wetlands cleans the ecosystem by absorbing heavy metals.

44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines , consider the following statements :

  1. The 24 – hour mean of PM should not exceed 15 µg / m³ and annual mean of PM should not exceed 5 µg / m³ .
  2. In a year , the highest levels of ozone pollution the periods of inclement weather .
  3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream .
  4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma .

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

a) 1 , 3 and 4

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 2 , 3 and 4

d) 1 and 2 only 3 .

Answer: A.

  • Ozone is more readily formed on warm, sunny days when the air is stagnant. Conversely, ozone production is more limited when it is cloudy, cool, rainy, or windy.
  • The 24 hour mean and annual mean mentioned in the question is as per the WHO guidelines.
  • PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or less): these particles are small enough to pass through the throat and nose and enter the lungs.
  • Long-term exposure to ozone is linked to aggravation of asthma, and is likely to be one of many causes of asthma development. Studies in locations with elevated concentrations also report associations of ozone with deaths from respiratory causes.

45. With reference to ” Gucchi ” sometimes 8 . mentioned in the news , consider the following statements :

  1. It is a fungus .
  2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas
  3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north – eastern India .

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 2 and 3

Answer: C.

  • The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. And it takes months for villagers to collect enough of these mushrooms, dry them and bring them to the market.

46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate , the of which is so widespread in our daily lives , consider the following statements :

  1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties .
  2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage .
  3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products .
  4. Articles made of can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions .

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 4

c) 1 and 4

d) 2 and 3

Answer: A.

  • Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE), a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. PET is spun into fibres for permanent-press fabrics and blow-molded into disposable beverage bottles.
  • The BIS has approved the use of PET bottles for alcoholic beverages and drinking water. But some segment believe that it is not made for alcoholic beverages. So statement 2 can be considered as incorrect.
  • It can be easily recycled. So 3 is correct.
  • Statement 4 is definitely incorrect as its incineration produces green house gases.

47. Which of the following is not a bird ?

a) Golden Mahseer

b) Indian Nightjar

c) Spoonbill

d) White Ibis

Answer: A.

Golden Mahseer is a fish.

48. Which of the following are nitrogen – fixing plants ?

  1. Alfalfa
  2. Amaranth
  3. Chickpea
  4. Clover
  5. Purslane ( Kulfa )
  6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a) 1 , 3 and 4 only3.

b) 1 , 3 , 5 and 6 only

c) 2 , 4 , 5 and 6 only

d) 1 , 2 , 4 , 5 and 6

Answer:A

 49. Biorock technology ” is talked about in which one of the following situaions?

a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

b) Development of building materials using plant residues

c) areas for Identification of exploration / extraction

d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests / protected areas

Answer: A.

  • Biorock Technology, or mineral accretion technology is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical currents through seawater, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a white limestone similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white sand beaches.

50. The ” Miyawaki method ” is well known for the :

a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi – arid areas

b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer: C

  1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?
  1. Administration of Justice
  1. Local Self-Government
  1. Land Revenue
  1. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: C

  • Explanation: Under the Govt. of India Act 1919, the subjects were categorized under Transferred and Reserved Subjects.
  • The reserved subjects were to be administered by governor through his executive council of bureaucrats and transferred subjects through elected members of the council.
  • Local self govt. was a transferred subject hence by going through the elimination method the answer is C
  1. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a) Clothing

(b) Coins

(c) Ornaments

(d) Weapons83.

Answer- (b) coins

Explanation: “Fanam” were alloyed gold coins used as currency during the times of Vijaynagara Empire. Purest and highest denomination coins were known as “Pagodas”. “Perta” was a coin which was ½ of Pagoda, whereas Fanam was 1/10 of Perta.

  1. Consider the following freedom fighters:
  1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
  1. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
  1. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: D

  • Explanation: Barindra Kumar Ghosh was an active participant of the first phase of revolutionary terrorism in Bengal and was associated with Anushilan Samiti.
  • Rash Behari Bose was contacted by Ghadr Party after World War 1 and was an active participant of Ghadr Movement during First phase of Revolutionary Terrorism.
  • Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was one of the founding members of HRA during the 2nd Phase of Revolutionary Terrorism.
  1. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
  1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely. States.
  2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

  • Explanation: As per Cripps Mission, the members of constituent assembly would be partly Electedby provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly Nominated by Princely states. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Any province not willing to join the union could have a separate constitution with separate union for which British govt. will sign a separate treaty to give this effect. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
  1. Nettipakarana
  1. Parishishtaparvan
  1. Avadanashataka
  1. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer- (b) 2 and 4 only

  • Explanation: Nettipakarna and Avadanashataka are Buddhist texts. Nettipakarna is a Pali text related to interpretation of Buddha’s teachings which associated with Theravada Buddhist Pali Canon. Avadanashataka is a Sanskrit mythological Buddhist texts associated with biographies of a 100 personalities associated with Buddhism. Parishistaparvan also known as Sthaviravalicharitra is a 12th century mahakavya by Hemachandra which elaborated histories of early Jain teachers. Trishashtilakshan Mahapurana was composed by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta king Amoghavarsha in 978A.D. It was completed by his pupil Gunabhadra.
  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical person                 Known as

  1. Aryadeva                       Jaina scholar
  1. Dignaga                          Buddhist scholar
  1. Nathamuni                Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(c) Only two pairs

(d) All three pairs

Answer- (c) only two pairs

Explanation:  Aryadeva was a Buddhist scholar associated with Mahayana Buddhism and a disciple of Nagarjuna.

  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1.The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.

  1. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
  1. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer- (b) 2 only

Explanation: The first Mongol incursion was during the rule of Iltutmish by Changez Khan. During the rule of Ala-uddin Khalji, one of the Mongol units reached outskirts of the city and besieged it.

  1. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants

(b) Qalandars

(c) Persian calligraphists

(d) Sayyids

Answer- (d)

Explanation:  The Sayyids had the trait of wearing pointed caps known as ‘Kulah’ due to which they were known as Kulah-daran.

  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
  1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
  1. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
  1. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:  The Dutch established their first factory at Masulipatnam in 1605. Permission for which was granted by the local rulers of Vijaynagar empire since the Gajapati rulers of orissa were overthrown in mid 16th century.

Alfonso De Albuquerque, also known as real founder of Portuguese empire in India, captured Goa in 1510 from Sultan of Bijapur.

In 1639, English East India Company shifted their center of activity from Masulipatnam to Madras when the land at Madras was granted to them by one of the local raja of Vijayanagara empire

  1. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
  1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.

2.If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.

3.If a son born to a female slave was fathered by  her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- (b) 2 and 3 only

 

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
  1. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
  1. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only                  (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only                  (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer-( A)

Explanation:  Tight money policy by US federal reserve may lead to increase in interest rates in US, which may lead to capital flight.

Money gets dearer so interest cost may rise.

Devaluation of domestic currency will increase the currency risk associated with ECBs.

62. Consider the following States:

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Kerala
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(c) Only three States

(d) All four States

Answer D

Explanation:  Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala are the major tea producing states in India. Other states that produce tea include Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
  1. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
  1. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Answer B.

Explanation:  Credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI and not RBI. Statement 2 and 3 are correct.

  1. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?
  1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB

2.BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.

  1. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- B.

Explanation:  RBI governor is not the chairman of BBB. Government of India appoints chairman of BBB.

  1. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements

1.As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.

2.The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer-C.

  • Explanation: Convertible bonds provide benefit to investor at the time of maturity to convert the principle amount into equity.
  • Convertible debentures have a lower rate of interest than non-convertible debentures since holders can convert them into equity shares.
  • Usually the value of equity investment increases with respect to inflation in economy. On the otherside interest rates on bonds are fixed. Hence convertible bonds’ option to convert to equity affordsthe bondholder a degree of indexation torising consumer prices.So both statements are correct.
  1. Consider the following:
  1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2.Missile Technology Control Regime

  1. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b)3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

.  Answer- D

Explanation:   India is a  member of all the three organizations.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
  1. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
  1. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
  1. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
  1. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(c)1, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer. C

Explanation: A recent GDP growth statistics report states that Vietnam is the fastest growing world economy with a growth rate of 7.31% in 2019. It has surpassed the growth rate of other Asian economies including India and China, which stand at 4.5% and 6% CAGR respectively. Hence Statement 1 is correct

The politics of Vietnam are defined by socialist republic framework which is ultimately controlled by a single-party. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

By eliminating statement 2 and including the statement 1, the  correct answer will be option  C

  1. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(c) Financial Stability and Development Council

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer-D.

Explanation:   As per Monetary Policy Framework Agreement, RBI is entrusted with the task of price stability by controlling inflation.

  1. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements
  1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
  1. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
  1. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:   NFTs shift the crypto paradigm by making each token unique and irreplaceable, thereby making it impossible for one non-fungible token to be equal to another. They are digital representations of assets and have been likened to digital passports because each token contains a unique, non-transferable identity to distinguish it from other tokens.  Hence statement 1 is correct.

Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs                        States

  1. Ghataprabha        Telangana
  1. Gandhi Sagar       Madhya Pradesh
  1. Indira Sagar         Andhra Pradesh
  1. Maithon                Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer-C

Explanation: As not correct is asked. Ghatprabha- Karnataka (Ghatprabha) Gandhi sagar- Madhya Pradesh (Chambal)

Indira sagar- Madhya Pradesh (Narmada) Maithon- Jharkhand (Damodar)

  1. In India, which one of the following compiles 9 information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(c) Labour Bureau

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer-C

 

72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

  1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
  2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
  3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
  4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer-A

Explanation: Under Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 –

Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of central and state Govt., national and international organization.

Collection of Statistics relating to coal washeries.

Hence Statement 1 is correct

 

Functions of Coal Controller’s Organisation are listed as below-

Under Colliery Control Rules, 2004 –

  1. To lay down procedure and standard for sampling of coal.
  2. Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
  3. To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
  4. To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.
  5. To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
  6. Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/ trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.
  7. To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to subdivide a mine.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957-

Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt.

Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Coal Controller’s Organization doesn’t ensure that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in prescribes time. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

  1. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer- A

74. Consider the following statements:

  1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
  2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  D

 

WHO is not involved in ISC. NIUA is an independent research institute which supports initiatives of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

  1. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(C) Central Ground Water Authority

(d) National Water Development Agency

Answer: C

76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
  2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
  3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: A

Explanation: United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee set up by General Assembly and works and reports to United Nations General Assembly. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. There is no such rule of meeting as given in the statement 2. Hence it is incorrect.

  1. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer-A.

Explanation: Polar code is International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles.

Source – https://www.imo.org/en/OurWork/Safety/Pages/polar-code.aspx

  1. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1.The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

  1. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
  2. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly has granted observer status to international organizations, entities, and non-member states, to enable them to participate in the work of the United Nations General Assembly, though with limitations. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

As per information on the U.N. website, the General Assembly decided that “observer status would be confined to states and intergovernmental organisations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.” The Sixth Committee of the General Assembly considers all applications for observer status before they are considered in the plenary session, the UN website said, adding that Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters. Hence statement 3 is correct.

79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

  1. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer-D.

Explanation: The present Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

HQ – Kolkata

Currently Tea Board has two overseas offices located at Dubai, and Moscow.

Source – https://www.teaboard.gov.in/TEABOARDCSM/NA==

  1. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Answer- A

Explanation: Greenwashing is when a company purports to be environmentally conscious for marketing purposes but actually isn’t making any notable sustainability efforts.

Source – https://www.businessnewsdaily.com/10946-greenwashing.html

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
  1. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only

b)2 Only

c)Both  1 and 2

  1. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation:Low clouds reflects more solar radiation Low clouds have high absorption rate of terrestrial radiation

82.Consider the following statements:

  1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
  1. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
  1. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: C

  • Explanation: Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda. With over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees fleeing the ongoing civil war, as of early 2017 it was the largest refugee settlement in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
  • Dadaab refugee complex consists of three camps.
  • The first camp was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in 2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived, fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia.
  • Hence statement 3 is correct.
  1. Consider the following countries:
  1. Armenia

2.Azerbaijan

  1. Croatia
  1. Romania
  1. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(3) 2 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer C.

Explanation: Organisation of Turkic states is an international organization comprising prominent independent Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan.

  1. Consider the following statements:

1.Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

2.Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

3.Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are. correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer B.

Explanation: Kerala’s Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power.

India’s largest floating solar photovoltaic project is commissioned in Andhra Pradesh. Source – https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/indias-largest-floating-solar-power-plant-commissioned-in-andhra-pradesh-11631774123853.html

Bhadla Solar Park is the largest solar park in the world as of 2021, and is spread over a total area of 5,700 hectares (14,000 acres) in Bhadla, Phalodi tehsil, Jodhpur district, Rajasthan, India. NTPC has received approval to set up a solar park bigger than this in Kutch. But it is still in building stage. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

  1. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sen, consider the following statements:
  1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2.Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3.The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer -D

Explanation: The territorial sea extends to a limit of 12 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal State. Within this zone, the coastal State exercises full sovereignty over the air space above the sea and over the seabed and subsoil.

Out to 12 nautical miles (22 kilometres; 14 miles) from the baseline, the coastal state is free to set laws, regulate use, and use any resource. Vessels were given the right of innocent passage through any territorial waters.

EEZ extends upto 200 nautical miles from the base line.

  1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer-B

Explanation: Japan considers China’s growing activity to be a security threat and opposes Beijing’s claim to the Japanese-controlled Senkaku Islands, called Diaoyu in China, in the East China Sea and its increased activity in the disputed area.

87.Consider the following pairs:

Country                                                Important reason for being in the news recently

  1. Chad                                                Setting up of permanent military base by China

2: Guinea                                             Suspension of Constitution and Government by military

  1. Lebanon                                         Severe and prolonged economic depression
  1. Tunisia                                        Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: B

Explanation: First is incorrect since it is Equitorial Guinea where china wants to establish its first permanent military base

Second is incorrect since it was in Myanmar where military suspended Constitution and the Govt. recently

Third is correct since Lebanon has been facing severe and prolonged economic depression since 2019 when the govt. imposed new taxes

Fourth is correct since in August 2021, the President of Tunisia suspended and dissolved parliament.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned                    Country

in the news

  1. Anatolia                                                Turkey
  1. Amhara                                                 Ethiopia
  1. Cabo Delgado                                       Spain
  1. Catalonia                                                Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: B

Explanation: First is correct. Anatolia, also known as Asia Minor, is a large peninsula in Western Asia and the westernmost protrusion of the Asian continent. It constitutes the major part of modern-day Turkey.

Second is correct. Amharas are a Semitic-speaking ethnic group which is indigenous to Ethiopia, traditionally inhabiting parts of the northwest Highlands of Ethiopia, particularly inhabiting the Amhara Region. Recently they faced with mass arrest by Tigray group of Ethiopia.

Third is incorrect. Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. A deadly insurgency by militants linked to the Islamic State group has ravaged the gas-rich Cabo Delgado province since late 2017, claiming some 3,000 lives.

Fourth is incorrect. Catalonia is a northeastern part of Spain where people were recently demanding for a separate statehood

  1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1.Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

  1. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.

3.Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its

capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer A.

Explanation: In a significant verdict, the Bombay High Court has ruled that wild animals including tiger should be treated as “government property for all purposes” and any damage caused by them should be compensated by the Government.

Statement 2 is also correct as per Wildlife protection Act, 1972.

Statement 3 is incorrect as section 11 of wildlife protection act, 1972 says that the approval of Chief wildlife warden is essential to capture and kill a wild animal who has become threat to human life.

90.Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

Answer-A

Explanation: Leafcutter ants use leaves as their fertilizer to grow their crop: fungus. They cultivate their fungal gardens by providing them with freshly cut leaves, protecting them from pests and molds, and clearing them of decayed material and garbage. In return, the fungus acts as a food source for the ants’ larvae.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka’s major                                Location in the

rock edicts                                                      State of

  1. Dauli –                                                        Odisha
  1. Erragudi –                                                 Andhra Pradesh
  1. Jaugada –                                               Madhya Pradesh
  1. Kalsi –                                                      Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer- (b) only two pairs

Explanation: Jaugada Rock Edict is in Odisha and Kalsi Rock Edict is in Uttarakhand

  1. Consider the following pairs:

King                                             Dynasty

  1. Nannuka                              Chandela
  1. Jayashakti                           Paramara
  1. Nagabhata II –                Gurjara-Pratihara
  1. Bhoja                                  Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer-(b) only two pairs

Explanation: Jayashakti was a king belonging to Chandela dynasty. Nannuka was the founder of Chandela dynasty. Bhoja was a Gurjara-Pratihara ruler.

  1. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic,

(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Answer- (b) The social classification of varna system was known to Sangam poets

Explanation: Sangam talks about the material culture of people in the peninsula. The social classification of Varna system was known to the Sangam poets but it did not recognize birthbased divisions. Sangam poems had ethics elaborated for all the classes of people in the society. Magical forces known as ananku are recognized by the Sangam poets.

  1. “Yogavisistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a) Akbar

(b) Humayun

(c) Shahjahan

(d) Aurangzeb

Answer- (a) Akbar

Explanation: Nizamuddin Panipati translated ‘Yogavasista’ (attributed to Maharishi Valmiki); into Persian in the late 16th century A.D. This is a time period that can be considered contemporary to Akbar.

  1. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which of the following one statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation wasdevotion.

(b)  Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation

Answer-A.

Source – https://www.britannica.com/biography/Ramanuja

  1. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

  1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
  1. description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
  1. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Answer- (a)

Explanation: Somnath is considered first amongst the 12 Jyotirlinga shrines found in India. Al-Biruni in his book Kitab-ul-Hind or Tahqiq-i-Hind mentions about the Somnath temple The Somnath temple has undergone many desecrations since the 11th century, the first being by Mahmud Ghazni in 1025 A.D. Every time the temple was rebuilt by the then rulers. The construction of the modern day Somnath temple was by the resolve of Sardar Patel. The pran pratishtha of the modern day temple was done by Rajendra Prasad( the then President of India) in 1951

  1. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human

body?

(a) They protect the environmental allergens. body from

(b)They alleviate the body’s pain and Inflammation.

(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Answer-D

Explanation: Lec 11 Science technology: Blood cell in Health Part 1 explain types of white blood cell

The T and B lymphocytes (T and B Cells) are involved in the acquired or antigen-specific immune response given that they are the only cells in the organism able to recognize and respond specifically to each antigenic epitope

98.Consider the following statements

  1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.

2.Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.

  1. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c)1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer-D

Explanation: Lec 13 Nanotechnology Science class

Expain nanoparticle

Graphite also available naturally or manmade too ,Volacano ash etc 1st Statement wrong so by elimation

Statement 2 application

Statement 3 environment concern as non-biodegradable also used eg given in class of socks

  1. Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1.assess the age of a plant or animal.

  1. distinguish among species that look alike.
  1. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)3 only

(c)1 and 2

(d)2 and 3

Answer-D.

Explanation: DNA barcoding is a method of species identification using a short section of DNA from a specific gene or genes.

Specific short DNA sequences or markers from a standardized region of the genome can provide a DNA barcode for identifying species.

DNA barcoding represents an essential tool to evaluate the quality of food products. The purpose is to guarantee food traceability, to minimize food piracy, and to valuate local and typical agro-food production.

Source – https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_barcoding#Advantages_and_challenges

100.Consider the following:

1 Carbon monoxide

2.Nitrogen oxide

3.Ozone

  1. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a)1, 2 and 3

(b)2 and 4 only

(c)4 only

(d)1,3 and 4

Answer-B.

Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain. Nitrogen oxide and sulfur dioxide are must. Hence by elimination we can choose

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